So if there was no one to perceive the change, there'd be no time?
Also, what is change?
So if there was no one to perceive the change, there'd be no time?
Also, what is change?
This sounds like a circular definition because "modification" is a synonym for "change".
Can we agree on that definition?
How is something that's different different from something that's changed? It sounds like it's one and the same to me.
Also, you used the word "became". That word has temporal connotations. So if you define change in terms of time, you can't then go on to define time in terms of change without it being another circular definition.
For example, a star is different from star light. When I look at the sky through a telescope I don't see a star,I see star light. Same can be said for any object as well,we see light emanating from an object therefore vision is perception of an object as measured by our optics.
Time is how me perceptually measure change. This distinguishment can potentially prove valuable much like how distinguishing perception of star light and the star itself is important(not so important for close objects but important at a grand scale.)
Modification,change and other words used to describe when something becomes different do not imply human measurement.
We can for example talk about a tree that fell in a forest with no human to measure that change. Did it happen? Yes. We can only say it didn't happen if we exclude all events beyond our perceptive ability from reality. In the same way,change does not depend on time but time is a measuremet of change.
It is all too easy for us to bury ourselves in so many words that we push the circularity of the argument behind so much obfuscation that we can no longer perceive the circularity, but it is still there. To truly define time, one must fundamentally start from some sort of perspective in which it does not exist, then show how it arises. This is not something you're going to pull off in English. It is soaked in time. You're going to have to use math or you are almost certainly just moving the obfuscation around. (And also deal with the question of what it means to "arise", though to some extent that's an artifact of English popping up again. There are mathematical ways of dealing with that.)
The question isn't "is before different than after?", nor is it anything about how much difference there is, or how it may relate to other differences. The question is "how is it that there is a before and after at all?", to which merely pointing out that there is a before and after isn't very helpful.
I wanted to separate our perception of time from time itelf (which I called change). Isn't time something perceived?