Evolution of the English Alphabet
usefulcharts.com
usefulcharts.com
> Linguist here! In those ancient languages, there was no standard writing direction or standardized spelling conventions. In fact the Greeks often wrote in either direction alternating in a method called "boustrophedon" which means "ox-turning." You get to the end of the line and then write backwards to the other side of the page; it's actually much better for reading.
Answer by sandscript
It turns out line tracking is an issue for readers with dyslexia, various visual problems, and ADHD.
So maybe back when literacy was so low and scripts were used only occasionally, to most literate people it didn't matter which way you drew each letter, until someone decided to canonicalize it. I suppose the choice was arbitrary.
My reasoning is once the vertical line part is drawn it would be awkward to go backward for the two bumps. Especially if using ink not chilling it into stone. You would end up smearing the ink.
But even with stone or ink you'd have more room on the right for spacing between the previous and next letter.
So still, the final choice seems pretty arbitrary to me.
It's clearly something that impacts different people in different ways.
Possibly the letter direction followed the word direction, and when left-right was established so were letters?
As for why so many of the letters flipped, it's because they used to be written in both directions. But with the introduction of ink, left to right eventually became standard (less smudging if you're right-handed).
It's an appealing idea, not least because it seems so bizarre.
Korean is almost phonetic but it's very recent (1443-1444) and it's influenced by the Latin alphabet family (should I call it Phoenician). It's not a direct copy, but it's not an independent invention.
The Japanese language is mostly logographic, but they have two second class syllabic alternatives for students, kids and weird words. They have no traditional phonetic system.
If I can add a personal anecdote, I speak Spanish that is a very regular phonetic language like German. When my daughter was learning to read we have to teach her all the combinations of each consonant, for example "ma, me, mi, mo, mu" and then "la, le, li, lo, lu", and then ... after a few letter we imagined that she would pick the regularity and then with a single example like "ba" she would complete the sequence but no, we had to tell her the whole sequence "ba, be, bi, bo, bu".
This is similar to the system used in schools, so I guess it's necessary to hear all the syllabic combinations in spite when you are grow up you my think they are easy to interpolate.
And remember that Spanish is like German, you have a straightforward relation between the written form and how you say it. [There are minor pronunciation details, as in any language, for example we sometimes drop some unnecessary letters.]
This is one of the things I love about Spanish. I've heard people say that English is easier to read than Spanish. I don't know what those people are smoking, but I think it would be too strong for me ;-) Seriously, how would anyone know how to pronounce words like "enough" without hearing them first?
(It's also the answer to "yes/no" questions. Answer in a sentence, don't just say "yes" or "no". There's rules about how English speakers use them "yes" and "no" and when we use full sentences, but if you're asking me, the answer is just "always say 'i do' or 'she won't' or whatever", because it's 100% guaranteed to be clear and unambiguous. It's also easier to remember in the heat of the moment despite the complexity. If you want to be really good, you can practise "no, I don't", but leave "yes, I do".)
I've dabbled in Japanese, German, and Spanish. All of these languages are easier to pronounce than English - and English is the only language I'm fluent in!
The New Yorker is (in)famous for coöperate, naïve, reëlect, etc.
Some people spell French loan words the French way, e.g. café, resumé, etc.
French/German/Spanish/etc proper names commonly keep their diacritics in English texts. Many people see Gödel as more correct (even in English) than Goedel.
In New Zealand English, Māori loan words commonly keep the macron. Certainly if you look at New Zealand government web sites you will see that happening.
But if English contains just as many diacritics as French/German/Māori/etc (albeit with rarer and less consistent usage) is there really a distinct "English alphabet"? Or just one Latin alphabet shared by many languages? (I know the page author attempts to address this objection, but I'm not satisfied with the response.)
"Fyi, the above chart was actually just a simplified promo for a much larger chart - a Writing Systems of the World poster. So, if you're concerned about the fact that thorn, wynn, or any other letters are missing, rest assured that they were indeed included on the main chart."
It's interesting how the Q gets turned upside down and rounded out.