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Because Congress' intentions are taken into account only after the actual text, and most of the time not at all (or they would have written their intentions clearly within the enforceable provisions.)

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I disagree.

That wasn't a statement of opinion.

I still disagree.

This is actually incorrect. Courts including the Supreme Court will take into account "legislative intent" when interpreting a law.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legislative_intent

You just said the same thing he did, added a Wikipedia link, and called him incorrect.

There should be a name for this. A "triple HN" or something.

pedaHNtic²?

Well that's the pot calling the kettle black.

That's why it's funny. Don't mind a little self depreciation. We're a bit self-important here and could use a little humility.

The irony of the "non_sequitur" user missing the logical clause sequences and saying it was incorrect is quite amusing.

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