Assume that 10% of a population carry one copy of the gene, and a carrier has a child with a random partner.
Then 10% of the children will be from partners also carrying the gene, with 2.5% inheriting no copy, 5% inheriting one copy, and 2.5% inheriting two. The other 90% will will be with partners without the gene, with 45% inheriting one copy, and 45% no copy. Absent other illnesses and medical care, 97.5% of the children will survive.
For a parent without the gene, 5% of the children will inherit a copy of the gene from the other partner, and 95% will inherit none. Absent other illnesses, 100% will survive and a person without the gene will on average produce slightly more viable offspring, slowly driving the gene out of the population.
I don't have the actual numbers, but assume that malaria kills 10% of the children without the gene, but only 5% of those with one copy.
Now the expected percentage of viable offspring for a carrier is 0.9 * (2.5 + 45) + 0.95 * (5 + 45) = 90.25, as it is for a non-carrier, since 0.9 * 95 + 0.95 * 5 = 90.25, too.
So with these hypothetical numbers, the partial malaria resistance does cancel the negative effects of the sickle cell gene and the 10% prevalence of the gene is stable. If the prevalence goes down, the gene starts to confer a benefit to the carrier (as the chance of meeting a partner that is also a carrier goes down, and fewer of the children of non-carriers will be carriers), and if it rises, it becomes a liability.
Other numbers will move the equilibrium point, but as long as the gene confers even the slightest advantage, it is expected to stay in the population at a rate that makes it sufficiently improbable for two carriers to meet and have children. (If the rate is low enough it may still be eliminated by pure chance.)
Assuming 100% mortality, how could there possibly be an advantage if the genes of the afflicted cannot be propagated ?