For whom, the bell tolls
economist.com
economist.com
But I guess the distinction between whom and who is not so obvious in a lot of cases (and I was surprised to realize it is really "Whom to follow").
German still have a lot more familiarity with cases, still "Der Dativ ist dem Genitiv sein Tod"
I'm happy to know about your wife's students!
First, who & whom are more rare in speech than its & it's which are fairly common.
Second, there is zero confusion about which one to use with its & it's. One is a contraction for "it is", and the other shows the possessive. These are very simple rules.
Who & whom, in my personal experience, don't get as much coverage in the English classroom. I'd be hard-pressed to find people who could tell me exactly when to use those versus its & its, as those come up less in day to day conversation.
Since its & it's have very clear rules and are used frequently, addressing the correct usage is important, same with your & you're and their, there, & they're.
http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3703
I, too, will likely lament the loss, should it come to pass, but we've managed before, and we would again.
And actually, at its origins, Nouns didn't take apostrophes either.
This article explains some things https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/His_genitive
They had a FAQ entry acknowledging that’s should technically be “whom”, but of 100+ complaints they got, all but one had come from Germans.
Wer: Who Wen/Wem: Whom
But the 1st is the direct object, the 2nd is the indirect object, so "Whom do you trust" would be the 1st case, "to whom" would (in the literal sense) be the 2nd, and "For whom the bell tolls" is "Wem die Stunde schlägt"
https://www.reddit.com/r/badlinguistics/comments/26c3v4/was_...
On a more serious note, and not to claim right or wrong, I was taught in primary school that "whom" should be used as the object of a preposition "she, to whom I gave," or "she, with whom I studied," but never as a direct object; "who do you know?", not "whom do you know?". No idea if the latter is a geographical artifact or just what's taught nowdays. Speakers of slavic languages would recognise those first two usages as the dative (кому, komu, etc) and instrumental case (кем, kým, etc) respectively, and afaict in Old English the dative hwǣm was used for both. I suppose the direct object "whom do you know" came to popularity through more creative use somewhere along the line.
Total sidebar, but has any frequent reader of The Economist not been irked by the recent removal of the comment section? It remained one of the few places with a healthy signal-to-noise ratio and frequently the comments provided more insight than the articles they sat below (The Economist is wont to prescriptions as much as descriptions which helps to create debate).
Such a shame.
For what it's worth, in my experience "whom" is fine to use for indirect objects (a la dative) but not direct. But having these distinctions doesn't do a whole lot for clarity, as the move away from proper case distinction in modern German shows.
I think that would be easier if you everyone agreed who'd set the default:
- the most (Indian English)
- the most powerful (the US) or
- the closest to the root (the British)
Could you elaborate on this? What problems does it actually solve?
Thou oughtest to!
This distinction is allegedly unique to England, possibly to the south of England: even there, I doubt it's adhered to much, except by sticklers. One of the older books on grammar (possibly Fowler's Modern Usage, I'd have to check) had the apocryphal story of the Scotsman who fell in the sea off the English coast, and in fear and desperation shouted 'I will drown, and no one shall save me!': onlookers left him to his fate, regretfully but in accordance with his apparently plainly stated wishes.
Questions like "Who did you give it to?" are far more common in normal speech than "To whom did you give it?", and have been since long before I was born.
That contortion of a sentence comes from the old Prescriptivist rule "never end a sentence with a preposition". Never mind that it leads to such odd sentences as that, and a loss of clarity.
"Who did you hit?" and even "who hit who" have long been the norm in speech. The _whom_ version of those utterances would not often have passed the lips even of older, more educated English speakers in the last decade of the 20th century.
Here we are, nearly 20 years into this century and news is being published about the demise of a word that had almost entirely fallen out of common usage last century.
I noticed, but I wasn’t one of the many who wrote in to complain.
As a news item this is about as timely as the outbreak of the Iraq War.