Thank you, but I was looking for a proof formalized in hard and cold logic like in this paper below (so that assumptions are clear and formalized):
I didn't say it is mathematically wrong
> It is "wrong" by Ockham's razor.
You do know that there are dozens of mathematical and formal versions of Ockham's razor.
Show me a formal version in which it is wrong. Otherwise arguing about this is like discussing politics where the loudest voice wins. Using English to debate the philosophical foundations of physcis after almost a hundred years of Hilbert, Gödel etc is what is wrong.
> Do it yourself.
This is why the Copenhagen interpretation still lives on and will live on if its detractors are too lazy to formalize things decently.