Ethics in Machine Learning: Interview with Dr. Hanie Sedghi, Google Brain
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I write a bit more about how to define algorithmic bias here: http://aaronlspringer.com/algobias-overview/
But statistics such as crime rates and default rates are NOT the same across race and sex. Is she saying that models should be fiddled with to make the same average prediction by race, sex, and other demographic variables?
A vastly more reasonable standard, but easy to confuse without stats background, is e.g. http://ttic.uchicago.edu/~nati/Publications/HardtPriceSrebro...
Attempting to censor nodes in a classifier’s Bayesian network will strictly result in some combination of A) the classifier routing around the damage and B) the classifier producing worse results. Either way, we’ve accomplished nothing. The linked paper, on the other hand, still allows the classifier to be accurate without giving incorrect results across protected categories.
"Definition 2.1 (Equalized odds). We say that a predictor Yhat satisfies equalized odds with respect to protected attribute A and outcome Y , if Yhat and A are independent conditional on Y ."
This is from page 3. Yhat is the model trained on A (protected class) T (training outcome).
Do you see how if this definition holds there can be absolutely no redundant encoding?
I thought more about your question (at least what I thought it was) and it wouldn't necessarily prevent redundant encoding but it would sort of restrict how 'damaging' such an encoding could be (if that makes sense).
This whole field is very new but very exciting and very troubling.
Like- what is fairness really? Its an intersection of philosophy/ethics and very UN-intuitive mathematics..there are many open questions
I think the main point is that this is still early days for defining a mathematical measure for 'fairness'.
Wouldn't it be better to have a model that could tell whether an individual will be more susceptible to defaulting or crime based on their context, and not strictly because of their gender or race? I think that is the point here, because otherwise it would be a biased prediction.
Some of the variables might turn out to be more predictive, and some variables probably quite a bit less. Some variables might turn out to be predictive even though one would guess they shouldn't. For example, people with brown eyes are more likely to be victims of crime than people with blue eyes. It might seem like a mystery, until you realize that black people overwhelmingly have brown eyes, and they are more likely to be a victim of crime than white people. Here, removing race as a variable will only make you and your model more confused.
It is important to realize that removing predictive variable will not necessarily make your model less "biased" -- in fact, it is likely to make your model more often wrong than before, and therefore less useful. The difficulty here stems from the fact that often laws require you to make "non-discriminatory" decisions, and if you attempt to do that, for example by introducing counteracting bias to the bias you get from reality, your model will be less predictive and so less useful.
Fairness in general is very complicated issue. Suppose our model tells us that blue agents are much more likely to default on loan, and this is in fact the underlying reality. The creditor, to maximize his profit, should therefore charge blue agents higher interest than red agents. If you are blue agents, this is obviously unfair for you -- it's not your fault some other agents who share similar characteristic default more often. However, if we have laws forbidding discrimination based on agent's color, the creditor must then charge both colors of agents equally, and since one is more likely to default, this interest rate would be higher than what red agents would pay if the anti-discriminatory laws weren't put in place. Isn't it unfair towards red agents then? After all, it's not your fault that some other agents who share some characteristic default more often...
That's what I'm getting at.
>>Suppose our model tells us that blue agents are much more likely to default on loan, and this is in fact the underlying reality.
That's a cute thought experiment. Unfortunately, it is assuming human behaviors are caused by skin color. I do not believe that is 'the underlying reality'.
You might ask what is the reason the blue agents have higher default rate, and this might provoke an interesting discussion, but it does concern the creditor only as far as the interest rate they need to charge to make money is concerned. The creditor does not care if there is some "fair" or "unfair" reason why blue agents default more often, they just want to make money by focusing on what they know best, which is giving loans and collecting interest.
The real causes are more likely things that happen to be disproportionately manifest among certain demagraphics - in this case, blue agents:
- Living in an area with a higher cost of living
- Societal expectations (negative - expectations of negative behaviors)
- A lower average salary
- Culture? (family size, fiscal knowledge / habits / etc)
- And probably a lot more.
Yet on average, it might be the fact that if you picked a blue agent with a loan, that loan would be more likely to default, than a random loan from the other agents.
Unfair? yes. Reality? yes.
What if blue agents were the victims of institutional racism for hundreds of years? Obviously, their lack of opportunities will have hampered their abilities to earn high credit scores and obtain legitimate forms of income. What then? It's as if were building models that measure agents who exist in two separate contexts predicting which one belongs to the 'socially acceptable' context, aka, which one belongs to the class of agents who were the perpetrators of social injustice for centuries. Is that really what we want to predict? No, we're trying to predict how trustworthy an individual is. This might mean that our standard techniques need reassessment if we're going to build models that affect the lives of future generations.
What happens if more people of a group more likely to default take out loans? More of them default, further harming that group.
We do need to address institutional racism, I just don't think asking banks to behave irrationally will be effective in addressing it (or good for either party).
One could also argue that a person's attributes that are not the result of choice should not be used to assess them, because they reflect historical and environmental influences rather than personal ones.
It's possible that the upshot of a legal challenge could be a crippling cap on the accuracy of models as they explicitly avoid any information derived from any protected factors.
Imagine we have a 50/50 population of purple and orange people. We know that purple offenders are caught twice as often for a certain crime, and 10 purple offenders are caught and 5 orange offenders are caught. If we run our data and our model predicts that we're getting substantially more purple offenders, then we know our model is wrong - it isn't taking into account the skew due to differential enforcement.
How do you fix this? She gives 3 methods. 1) Change the params to normalize, 2) resample and get better data, 3) use causal reasoning and other data to plug in the holes.
[0] https://www.ncjrs.gov/App/Publications/abstract.aspx?ID=2560...
Unless the reports are also influenced by race, such as a police officer not stopping a white person who was a criminal because he/she is white, but over-inspecting non-white people.
Now say that 10% of both whites and blacks are criminals. And they always get identified if stopped, and eventually arrested and sentenced. An that the population is evenly split between blacks and whites.
(1) Criminal prevalence: 50% B, 50% W
(2) Police stops: 91% B, 9% W
(3) Criminals caught (reports): 91% B, 9% W
(4) Incarceration: 91% B, 9% W
Now remember that only (3) and (4) are available to the public, so one might look and say that the problem isn't that blacks are incarcerated differently, but that blacks commit more crimes, when they don't.
The first issue is that humans are about the most complex objects that we know in universe and trying to make predictions on their behaviour and long term fate would require complex and very detailed data on each of them - if at all its possible. Trying to predict behavior just based on age, race, sex is mind bogglingly dumb, unjust and irresponsible. Trying to predict criminal behaviour itself is unethical because it may pre-disposes large number of people as future culprit without any evidence even if they are perfectly normal people trying to care for their families and peacefully live their lives.
In my view, any classifier built for predicting human behaviour should not use attributes of a person that they have no control over whatsoever, such as race, age and sex. Doing this usually is very tempting because your classifier might start giving better accuracy on test set but one always need to think about the cost of false positives. Each false positive is ruining an innocent hopeful life without any wrongdoing.
The problem usually isn't injustice caused by model errors, because humans make unjust errors all the time; using a model that's better than humans is still a win even if the model isn't perfect. Likewise for medical diagnosis, if a model is better than the average doctor, it should replace them.
The actual problem is that humans mistake the model prediction for something it is not. E.g. if you train a model on the data of people accused of a crime to predict whether they will be convicted, you're modeling P(convicted | accused). Even if you train this model to perfection (zero test errors), you would at best reproduce the existing legal system; which is a win if the model is cheaper. But people tend to mistake the model output for P(should be convicted | accused), which assumes that the legal system is perfect. Or worse, they think of it as P(should be convicted), without accusation.
The solution to your "go in the field and run your classifier on everyone" thought experiment is not to hide race, sex and age from the model. If the model had no access to any features at all, it would just predict the baseline conviction rate, much higher than the baseline crime rate. Using the model output as evidence of a crime would be just as silly, because that's not what the model was trained to do.
The solution is to not even try to predict something for which you don't have any data. Modeling can never make a process more accurate, it can only make an accurate process faster and cheaper (and slightly less accurate). Sometimes the accurate process is to wait for a few years and see what happens, e.g. for cancer mortality or recidivism rates. Sometimes the accurate process is to ask a lot of experts.
Once you have a model for the accurate process that is better than the cheaper process you'd otherwise use, then you can replace it by the model. Instead of a single human judge or a jury, have a model trained on the decisions of multiple judges and juries deliberating much longer than usual. Instead of a single doctor, have a model that has seen the medical histories of thousands of cancer patients and knows exactly which treatments worked.
Meta-physically you are using a probablisitc inference technique to derive from unknown-knowns in your data a given known-unknown predictor. You can try to normalize for known-knowns, blurring the biases you don't want to account, but you can't control for unknowns.
In some cases it is easy to detect bias in the model when there was discrete data for the feature you try to control. E.g. if your data would have an explicit 'gender' field, then you can test how much the outcome of the prediction is not correlated to the specific value of that field. If the data does not have such a feature, but derives it implicitly though e.g. food purchase preferences, that is much harder to detect. You can try to control for that if for whatever reason you deem the model not in line with bias preferences, but due to the implicitness it will be very hard to isolate the impacts.
I feel you will never get a model satisfactory to all, as in the end what is and what isn't accepted as 'neutral-data' is not a scientific but a political statement. There is nothing wrong with that. All our ethical choices are political. Just don't expect universal acceptance.
But once you put causation as the primary driver, is machine learning still powerful? My understanding of a causative model is that you start with a model that includes information sourced from real-life observation, then fit parameters from the data. That doesn't sound like machine learning to me.
Isn't the point of the various machine learning methods to find obscure correlations? They will by really effective at picking up proxies for race and gender if race and gender are correlated to a statistic. The 'machine learning' part is irrelevant, the question here is an age-old one related to using data to make decisions.
What machine learning does is function fitting, no more, no less. Whether this is causal, correlative, obvious, or obscure is irrelevant to the algorithm.
All it does is try to find parameters within a model function, which provide the best predictive power.
If we're looking at causal factors for classic examples of potentially discriminative classifiers e.g. loan default risk and crime reoffending risk, then no matter how you slice it the important causal factors for these things aren't only the objective measurements and things under your control but also different factors of influences, upbringing and cultural values. They're not the cause, and likely not the majority of the cause, but they're certainly a non-zero causal factor.
Having "bad" friends is not only a correlation, but a causal factor that affects these things - we're social animals, and our norms are affected by those around us. Would we consider fair to discriminate people in these ratings because of the friends they have? Do we want to ostracize e.g. ex-convicts by penalizing people who associate with them (so motivating them to choose not to associate), even if there's a true causal connection of that association increasing some risk?
Abuse of alcohol and certain drugs during pregnancy is not only a correlation, but a causal factor for these things (the mechanism IIRC was an decrease in risk avoidance and intelligence) - would we consider fair to discriminate people in these ratings because of what their mothers did?
Etc, etc - I have a bunch more in mind. And on top of that, many of these things will (in USA) be highly correlated with race for various historic and socioeconomic reasons, so taking that into account would still harm some races more than others. It seems that it just might be the interest of everyone just to avoid that huge can of worms.
I'm sure that facebook could give (if they wanted) a very, very good guess about the shade of your skin simply based on your history of likes, pages seen, etc.
and no ethics.