> Is there a particular standard...?
Well in this case, the legislator literally admitted to gerrymandering. See the opinion: Rather than seeking to advance any democratic or
constitutional interest, the state legislator
responsible for drawing the 2016 Plan said
he drew the map to advantage Republican
candidates because he “think[s] electing
Republicans is better than electing Democrats.”
Ex. 1016, at 34:21–23. But that is not a
choice the Constitution allows legislative
mapdrawers to make.
I don't think there's an easy way prove gerrymandering. The only antidote is to require serious (and audit-able) bipartisan cooperation when re-drawing districts.https://fivethirtyeight.com/features/gerrymandering-is-on-tr...
> In a 2004 opinion, [Justice Anthony Kennedy] expressed alarm at the practice of extreme partisan gerrymandering but said the court should hold off on outlawing it. He also left the door open to ruling differently in the future, as long as lawyers provided a suitable way to measure when gerrymandering goes too far. He said that without that measurement, the court runs the risk of becoming too involved in a decision-making process that is legally mandated to state legislatures.
https://digital.lib.washington.edu/researchworks/bitstream/h...
https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Matthew_Dube/publicatio...
Actually, it's maybe a little like spam filtering.