That is completely different. You don't go to jail for a license violation.
Is a license violation not equivalent to unlicensed use of code?
I mean, if you don't meet the terms of a license, you're not eligible to use the code under that license. That means you have no license to the code, and therefore are in breach of copyright, no?
How is that different from just using someone else's code outright - you're breaching copyright and you're not licensed, no?
If Goldman Sachs ever officially released the software it could be a copyright or license violation but this isn't the case.