It's basically the value of US companies on the stock market divided by the GDP, $27 trillion / $20 trillion = 135%.
Although it makes you wonder about if all that stashed money overseas is having a significant impact on that.
It's basically the value of US companies on the stock market divided by the GDP, $27 trillion / $20 trillion = 135%.
Although it makes you wonder about if all that stashed money overseas is having a significant impact on that.
The metric as designed is more flawed, because not all companies are public.
It is my understanding that the value of a stock should be equal to present value of future cash flows. If those future cash flows are growing faster than the discount rate then a value higher than 100% of GDP is to be expected.
Can anyone explain here why the stock market cap isn't much, much higher than a single year's GDP?
Is it because GDP is essentially "revenue" while market cap is "discounted future profits" -- and thus 20 years of 5% profit is going to be on the same order of magnitude of 1 year of revenue?