Question for those in the know (or the author, if you're lurking about):
> At this point, the idea of a chain should be apparent—each new block contains within itself, the hash of the previous Block. This is crucial because it’s what gives blockchains immutability: If an attacker corrupted an earlier Block in the chain then all subsequent blocks will contain incorrect hashes.
Grokking the idea of a chain is certainly apparent. However, it's a bit less clear in what specific way referencing blockchain immutability with this statement should be taken. If an attacker corrupted an earlier block in the chain, is that being mentioned as something that occurs after all subsequent blocks have already been created, thus proving the corrupted block is, indeed, corrupted by way of identifying it via verifying hashes and seeing a corrupted one?
If a bad actor corrupted block N, then all blocks after block N would themselves be corrupt (and presumably invalid and a waste of mining effort), correct? At this point, it seems to me that protecting the integrity of the chain requires dismissing the corrupted block & all its children, right? Doesn't that kind of indicate mutability of the chain? Or is immutability maintained by allowing corrupted blocks to remain in the chain, but some other process stepping in to essentially invalidate blocks?
I think there's something I'm missing here. No doubt it's obvious, and I'm just looking past it.
edit: I'm also just starting the consensus section, so perhaps that will resolve my confusion.
edit2: After finishing consensus, I think I get it.