Wouldn't that constitute very clear violation of the Sherman Antitrust Act and be considered profound anticompetitive behavior? I'm fuzzy on specifics, but I thought offering your product at a loss to drive away or outlast competitors was one of the big giant no-nos alongside price-fixing. Is the person doing the analysis just interpreting the numbers in that way because they're not showing a profit? Or, in other words, would the FTC be likely to interpret the situation in the same way?