Voynich manuscript: the solution?
the-tls.co.uk
the-tls.co.uk
In all I am surprised more progress has not been made since the advent of the internet and its crowd-sourcing potential. There is definitely no shortage of interpretations all over the internet, and in headlines from time to time. The last one I recall from a couple of months ago suggested that there was a specific Jewish birthing practice being illustrated on one of the pages that suggested a certain origin of the text. [2]
[1]https://www.nsa.gov/about/cryptologic-heritage/historical-fi...
[2]https://www.theguardian.com/books/2017/jul/05/author-of-myst...
Couldn't the same (whitespace separation) be done for sentences in a logographic representation?
[UPDATE:] More info here: http://www.voynich.nu/analysis.html
This is particularly interesting:
"The apparent lack of common phrases is one of the main anomalies of the Voynich MS text."
If that's really true I think that's a big clue. (Exactly what it's a clue of I'm not sure :-)
https://youtube.com/watch?v=4cRlqE3D3RQ
https://youtube.com/watch?v=8nHbImkFKE4
tl;dr: it's probably real writing, likely related to Roma/Syriac
I mean if tolkien had written the Lord Of The Rings in elvish the XKCD answer would still be essentially correct but it wouldn't tell us what it said.
The videos are an impressive phonological reconstruction, but I predict (based on the assumption that the math isn't lying), that it would be effectively impossible to get much beyond ad-hoc phonetic correspondences with Romany, to any predictive morphology or syntax.
The solution in this article is rather plausible. If the writing is in a highly restricted vocabulary, with highly restricted syntax, and highly constrained domain, it would be possible to get the observed information density.
Comparing it to, say, Linear B or Egyptian hieroglyphs is instructive. Both of those clearly have the information density of regular human language.
In the end, the solution might be a combination. It might use some Roma/Syriac nouns, but it seems clear it doesn't use them in anything like a normal linguistic context.
Caveat: IANALinguist
Natural language can be very surprising. :)
Holy Montague! You've found it! ;)
That is an extraordinarily European viewpoint, where alphabets have a few tens of glyphs, each representing a single letter (or, in the case of capital letters, two glyphs per letter).
Imagine an alphabet similar to Arabic where each letter may have up to five glyphs, or even an alphabet in which the _position_ of the glyph changes it's letter. Or Korean, where each 'letter' is composed of two or three interchangable components. Or Han, in which the number of instrument strokes in the glyph affect it's meaning.
There are so many variations on what constitutes a letter, never mind an individual glyph or a full word/concept, that one cannot use strictly European analysis techniques on arbitrary writing systems.
But we don't have to imagine a random alphabet which Voynich might have been written in. We can look at the actual language in the manuscript. It often shows three or four Latin-like glyphs repeated. Unless you have access to some special way these symbols are differentiated or otherwise convey information, a way that all other would-be interpreters have missed, you really don't have an argument.
And as far as European thinking goes - there's no evidence I know of a non-European origin to the manuscript.
Edit: and the languages you cite have a larger, not smaller information content than European languages, see;
https://linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/6167/most-su...
However, many medieval documents even in known real languages do contain almost undifferentiated glyphs one after the other:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minim_(palaeography)
Not quite the same, but something similar might conceivably apply to e.g. the Voynich's c-like characters.
IE, there's no text to translate, it's not an abbreviation for any standard text.
> changes it's letter
changes its letter
> changes it's meaning
changes its meaning
The punch line of one of his stories came while he was discussing the history of attempts to interpret it. One character had a dense theory that involved, as a step in the middle, involved the text being an anagram. The problem being that anagramming destroys information and, given a large enough text, is impossible to reverse. (Interestingly, this is why some 17th-18th century scientists who were obsessed with both secrecy and precedence published their results in anagram form---if someone later came along and published the same result, they could say, "See, I was first; here's what that gibberish means.")
My point being that if you're going to posit an "out-there" theory, you have to make sure your theory can get you back here.
For a short text, you may have a point, but for a text as large as the Voynich, information content is a pretty reasonable way to examine what's going on. The number of characters (as far as I know (http://www.voynich.nu/transcr.html)) is within the range of alphabetic writing. (Alphabets have <100 characters, syllabaries typically have a few hundred (Note: English has something like 5000 syllables.), and "morpho-syllabic" languages like Chinese (Thank you, John DeFrancis!) have a few thousand.)
To have more bits per character, the document would have to have more different characters. To pack more bits in via position, for example, would be possible, but you can't go crazy with the idea because you still need to be able to decrypt it. (Hangul is a neat example; it's alphabetic, but written with the letters arranged into blocks representing syllables. Neat!)
It is not at all, you misunderstand the point.
It is the technique that codebreakers used to check whether something is linguistic or not. And it is rather consistent across all languages. The 'Alphabet size' of a string might vary (i.e. logographic languages have much higher symbolic vocabulary sizes, so different per-symbol information content), but that doesn't affect the overall information density, because those symbols also take more information to encode. I haven't done the analysis myself, but as I understand it, Voynich is way way outside the range of normal human languages, European or otherwise.
And raising the issue of logographic or syllabic systems, is a point I made (did you not understand they are your examples). Even if one argued (as some have done) that the symbols in Voynich are logographic or syllabic, that would make it even lower information density, even further from human language.
I'm sorry I wasn't clear, but this stuff is very well-established in the Voynich literature. It puts genuine constraints over what the language can contain. It doesn't mean it's gibberish, but it is very unlikely to be 'real writing' derived from any known language, extant or extinct. Crucially, if it is real writing, it is of a form so dramatically different to anything we've ever seen before (i.e. fundamentally different syntactic and semantic structures), that one suspects the kind of correspondence translation techniques in the videos will be futile.
Roma and Syriac are two radically different languages (Indo-European vs Semitic), so it's peculiar that the conclusion would be that it's one of the two!
Disclaimer, I haven't watched the video.
Watch the third video[1], it's much shorter but provides quite compelling evidence to support his theory.
Thank you for the links!
Edit: Btw, looking at some suggested videos I've found this https://youtu.be/PoNm65v1thU a bit intriguing.
An exercise left to the reader I suppose.
The decoding yields extremely boring Latin, so I'm not terribly surprised if the investigator decided not to decode the entire document.
[1] http://blog.ptsecurity.com/2017/08/disabling-intel-me.html
> In particular, MINIX was chosen as the basis for the operating system (previously, ThreadX RTOS had been used). Now ME firmware includes a full-fledged operating system [...]
Woah, did I read that correctly? That there is a version of MINIX running inside of the Intel processors of presumably almost every modern computer with an Intel CPU that has Intel ME in it? If so then that's insanely cool! I mean I still dislike Intel ME itself and wish I could disable it easily and without risking damage/destruction but the idea of there being a version of MINIX running on my computer right now is quite cool.
Yep.
> If so then that's insanely cool!
I find it rather disturbing myself.
On the one hand I wish the signing keys are found/"figured out" one day; that means I can look at the OS myself, which would be cool.
But on the other hand, that gives rise to "3 CPUs for your rootkits!" (there are 3 486 cores) intrusions that would be unsettlingly hideable.
I'm torn about which way to go. Personally I actually wish the signing keys (or a circumvention) was in wide circulation - it means I have to be hyper-aware about my system state and what's running on it, but the chances are, if I can modify the code running on the 486 cores, I can run my own code on them that interacts with the rest of my system in detectable ways I can define myself (eg, writing a tiny string to a known part of memory immediately causes it to be changed (eg, hashed) to something else according to an algorithm) so I know the 486 cores are busy running my code (and hopefully only my code). Shard, fragment, encrypt, obfuscate, etc that logic a few degrees, and you should have a good canary.
And then I get to say _I'm_ using (in the sense that I own) all 11 cores, 19 cores, 27 cores, etc in my Intel CPU.
FWIW, it does seem that the keys are floating around out there: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=14189982 (i336_ was my previous account before I accidentally locked it)
So far I can can find online, this piece is the only thing he has ever published about the Voynich manuscript: https://duckduckgo.com/?q=%22nicholas+gibbs%22+voynich
Who is Nicholas Gibbs? Does anyone besides Nicholas Gibbs trust his opinion on these matters? And how did he convince the TLS to publish this drivel?
(to avoid being entirely negative, here's a link to a blog that shows what some better Voynich research looks like: https://stephenbax.net)
From the article it isn't clear if all or just a portion of the text is decipherable using the implied logic (ligatures of abbreviations of medicinal items).
Same guy? Editor of a paper in Ibiza.
ps. http://www.voynich.nu/ has a lot of interesting discussion; it's much linked to from wikipedia.
> A chance remark just over three years ago brought me a commission from a television production company to analyse the illustrations of the Voynich manuscript and examine the commentators’ theories.
Oh, my.
Either this is a parody or a tutorial on how to identify "crazy person goes down rat hole" situations.
And here we go....
Whee! It's like a slip-n-slide greased with butter.
"...one British academic claims..."
"Nicholas Gibbs, who is an expert on medieval medical manuscripts,...."
"Mr Gibbs, who claims to be a professional history researcher..."
It would be good to see a thorough study of it to test the author's hypothesis, of course.
The solution is the heading and index...which are missing.
Author might be right, but that is essentially an un-provable statement and doesn't really amount to a solution. But rather a statement that it can't be solved.
Not at all. Someone more motivated than the author can choose to decode it. If much of it was lifted, then you can trace back the lifted "recipe" to the earlier work and construct the index.
However, it's going to be very painful, slow work. For no real gain (who really cares about a sloppily done Medieval health self-help book?).
It doesn't matter if it's convenient as long as it's also true.
>Author might be right, but that is essentially an un-provable statement and doesn't really amount to a solution
Huh? Indexes can be reconstructed.
And is there a good explanation for why this document apparently stands alone in history as the only manuscript written in this way? Were there others, and we just lost them? Was this just a particularly egregious example of this forgotten art, and others written in this manner were easier to decipher? Lastly, there's a whole Wikipedia page about "scribal abbreviations" - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scribal_abbreviation - if decoding the Voynich manuscript were so easy as the author makes out ("It became obvious...") then why has some other medieval expert not already figured it out in the near-century people have been studying this manuscript?
Or, there's something called "spirit writing" isn't there, a sort of written form of speaking in tongues? Presumably the doing of which is also considered to be it's own reward.
Heck, perhaps a scribe went psychotic.
Seems a bit of a gamble if that was the plan, and the scribes were presumably either well-to-do or trusted by someone well-to-do if they could get their hands on the raw materials. That makes the prank/con/crazy spirit writing theory seem less likely to me but certainly doesn't rule either out.
As best as I can read, the purported Latin translation in the image at the top of the article says:
Folia de oz et en de aqua et de radicts de aromaticus ana 3 de seminis ana 2 et de radicis semenis ana 1 etium abonenticus confundo. Folia et cum folia et confundo etiam de eius decocole adigo aromaticus decocque de decoctio adigo aromaticus et confundo et de radicis seminis ana 3.
Feeding the above to Google Translate gives:
The leaves of Oz and added to the water and the aromatic radicts semen Ana ana 3 2 seed and the roots ana 1 etium abonenticus the mix. The leaves, when the leaves are decocole adigo and the mix of the aromatic decocque of the cooking adigo an aromatic mix of roots and seeds Ana 3.
Yes, I realize that the author's translation might be completely mistaken, but I'm curious to read what he thinks it says. If someone can make out the words better, please do so.
At the end of the article the author provides the following: aq = aqua (water), dq = decoque / decoctio (decoction), con = confundo (mix), ris = radacis / radix (root), s aiij = seminis ana iij (3 grains each), etc.
"Folia" = "leaves".
"Oz"= unknown, but can this be simply ounces? I'm not sure when the abbreviation was first used or if it was used in latin at all.
"etiam"="also", "furthermore", "still"
So... "3 leaves of "oz"/ 3 oz of leaves and in water and of the roots three each of 'aromaticus' three each of seeds,and of the seeds of the root 1 1/2 each also 'aromaticus' mixed."
Still kind of a nonsense. It seems there's no mention of what plant or plants should be used, unless aromaticus is that plant.
[1] https://stephenbax.net/?cat=5
[2] https://www.youtube.com/channel/UC-sW5dOlDxxu0EgdNn2pMaQ
Some really interesting analyses in there.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voynich_manuscript
Interesting stuff!
By now, it was more or less clear what the Voynich
manuscript is: a reference book of selected remedies
lifted from the standard treatises of the medieval
period, an instruction manual for the health and
well being of the more well to do women in society,
which was quite possibly tailored to a single
individual.That image is titled p16_Gibbs1.jpg. To me that hints that the author is serious and is planning to release a detailed paper.
His final statement at the end of the article is really bold. "Not only is the manuscript incomplete, but its folios are in the wrong order – and all for the want of an index."
Perhaps the author is going to provide the index, and the correct order for the folios while providing what he believes to be the missing pieces from other texts from that time period?
This article looks like a teaser to me for something significant. Let's hope anyway.