You're saying that if it takes time for the effects of a capitalist mode of production, which does not cater for those at the bottom of society, which creates wars for profit and plunder then therefore these countries are not guilty? Are you aware of how capitalism came about, through the forceful and violent enclosure of the commons in Western Europe, and the invasions and famines caused by the redirection of supplies and food for where it would be profitable elsewhere (Bengal famine), rents enforced by landlords (Irish Potato famine), etc.? If you are unaware of how capitalism came about, Marx does a good job explaining it through the laws in the country in which he lived, England[0].

[0] https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch31.htm and https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch26.htm

Ahistorical. Revisit 20th century Central and South America. This is a silly thread and one I'm not eager to perpetuate, but I can't not take this bait.