Equality of opportunity is not measurable. Equality of outcome is. Given that we know some variables such as race, sex, and sexual preferences shouldn't affect outcome, we should look for equality of outcome without correlation with these variables.
Why shouldn't these variables affect outcomes? To assert that any two groups should have identical economic outcomes, one first has to prove that those two groups are identical with regard to all preferences and genetic factors that can affect economic outcomes.
For example, sex may correlate with career choice, and career choice correlates with economic outcomes. Race has been found in some studies to correlate with results on IQ tests, which have been found to correlate with economic outcomes. To assert that such factors shouldn't affect economic outcomes, one hence first has to rule out all such potential correlations.
* A correlation between career choice and economic outcomes.
* A correlation between sex and career preferences.
* A correlation between race and IQ test results.
* A correlation between IQ test results and economic outcomes.
Am I correct ?
"Please avoid introducing classic flamewar topics unless you have something genuinely new to say about them."
So would you please not take threads in that direction, whence they never return?
That is, two grade A student may end up in totally different outcome, skewing statistics which would limit themselves to phenotypical attributes.
More on this point at https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=14912821 if anyone's interested.