A corporation is also paperwork, which also does not have interests. Only people have interests. Shareholders have interests, but they're usually not privy to the actual inner workings of a business. I mean, even ultra-libertarian finance recognizes this, under the name "principal-agent problem."
Banks don't give away money when lending; the situation is a lot subtler than that. First, consider that, when you deposit money in your bank account, you're loaning the money to the bank. From the bank's perspective, you've given them cash, which is an asset, and they've given you the right to demand the cash back, which is a liability. This being a loan, they pay you a small amount of interest. Second, consider that you can create liabilities on yourself ex nihilo just by writing "I owe you $5" on a piece of paper and signing it, which creates an asset for the person you give the IOU to. Third, consider that, if you're incredibly trustworthy, these assets that you created are marketable---and if you've got the backing of the Federal Reserve and the FDIC, then those assets will trade at par.
With all this in mind, it should now be clear that, when a bank creates a loan, it creates the assets for the loan by creating corresponding liabilities on itself, which is, new deposit account balances. That is, the bank creates "bank money" (deposits) ex nihilo when issuing a loan. The borrower creates a corresponding asset/liability pair, in the form of the loan itself (i.e., similarly to a bond), which is an asset of the bank.
In this situation, losses only occur if the loan goes into default and gets written off the bank's balance sheet. As long as the loan is in good standing, the created deposits (liability) are in balance with the created debt instrument (asset). On the other hand, the loan being paid off reduces deposits (reduction of liabilities), of which the principal component is used to write down the loan (reduction of assets) while the interest component is profit (increase in capital). There are more layers to this (what if the deposits are cashed out, or transferred to another bank?), and answers to those questions concern the actual role of the Fed, but suffice it to say, those questions don't refute this discussion.
So this is why a bank executive would do this. As long as the loan remains in good standing, it generates profits. Once the loan defaults, those profits are wiped out by the write-down of the remaining debt (reduction in assets), and while the bank can foreclose (take over the house, which increases assets), that usually isn't to the bank's favor. But that window, where profits go up and before the losses are realized, is a gold mine for corrupt executives.
This game was played before, which was called the Savings and Loan Crisis. The thing that changed was deregulation: the S&L debacle got people sent to prison, while the latest resurgence of liar's loans came in an era of notoriously ineffective banking oversight.