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How would it change if it was 1% instead of $1?

I just ran it at 1% instead of $1.

On only 5% of days was the spread greater than 80 -> 120.

I went a little further and ran a simulation [^1] with random payments in the range from $1 to a fixed percentage of the payer's wealth.

When this percentage is in the range 2-10%, the wealth inequality is significantly smaller than in the base case (i.e. all payments are $1). Then it starts growing again.

[^1]: https://gist.github.com/lou1306/1041ed6cd4eed433cfabf45f666b...

I doubt it would change very much. I wrote a program a few years ago similar to this [1] and I tried several different amounts of "payment" (fixed and random) and each time the result was the same.

What I did not track was the number of times a "person" became rich (for example, how many times a "person" had over 90% of the money) as that did not occur to me.

[1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=14282863

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