Can you explain what you mean here? What is the undecidability result you are referring to?
I kind of have the feeling you are trying to make a point about formal languages being "the same", whereas the article uses "the same language" to mean "a single programming language" that allows, but does not require, type declarations.
That such a language can exist should not be a point of contention. You yourself pointed to the PEP that defines such a language.