To come to the challenge posed in your comment, let's examine some other indicators of inequality.[2] The top 1% holds around 42% of the wealth. Meanwhile, the bottom 50% holds around 1% of the wealth. Doesn't that seem a bit ... unequal? Of course, to have valid concepts of "top 1%" inequality must of course exist on some level, but the disparity is staggering. There are 160 million people in the bottom 50%, and about 3 million in the top 1%.
The average person in the top 1% holds about $2240 for every $1 belonging to the average person in the bottom 50%. The price of a $1m car to the top 1% is on par with the cost of a current-gen gaming console (~$450) to the bottom 50%, on average.
Even without getting into the top 0.1% and their obscene amounts of money hoarding, this is a lot. We can go there too if you want.
We could also just ask the people who arguably have the best access to such data: the Congressional Budget Office.[3] The graphic on the front cover is enough to illustrate the difference, but you can also go through the findings in the body if you need more convincing.
All of this is freely available on the internet, and found with Google via "total wealth in the us". Either you didn't know this was possible, or you don't want to know the facts.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Productivity_and_Real_Med...
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:U.S._economic_variables_r...
[3] https://www.cbo.gov/sites/default/files/114th-congress-2015-...