Goldman Buys $2.8B Worth of Venezuelan Bonds, and an Uproar Begins
nytimes.com
nytimes.com
https://www.thenation.com/article/goldmans-greek-gambit/
Goldman Sachs was also very involved in selling subprime mortages to unwitting investors. Goldman Sach has had to deal with lawsuits that it wasn't acting in its clients' best interests:
http://articles.latimes.com/2010/may/16/business/la-fi-hiltz...
If Goldman Sachs is involved, you are likely getting fleeced in some fashion, you probably just do not realise it yet.
Vulture funds buy up sovereign debt issued by poor countries at a fraction of its face value, then sue the countries in courts - usually in London, New York or Paris - for their full face value plus interest.
Furthermore, in the context of western exploitation/interference with these countries' economies, many of whom have not had recourse to a judicial process for reparations - your notion of what is rightful or fair is perhaps too narrow.
Well face it, it either happens in the West or is not happening at all. And it's not like some obscure footnote, the arbitrage conditions are fully disclosed beforehand.
And also that delicious interest. You forget that the lenders already intend on getting something out of it. The reason they are getting interest at all is that there is a risk. If there was zero risk, there would be no need to pay interest.
One important part is that if I were to give you 10$ in 10 years, it has less value to you than me giving you 10$ now (which is the difference between lending you lending to me and you not lending to me if you were 100% sure I would pay back).
Under proper rule of law, the original lenders would have exactly the same chance of getting money back as Goldman, eliminating all need to sell the debt at a massive discount.
There are different reasons why somebody might decide to sell debt at a discount. One reason, for example, is that bankruptcy proceedings, especially international ones are super messy and expensive. If you are not dealing with these things on a regular basis, it might be better to book a small loss now and get and immediate cash flow instead of waiting for decades.
Would shorting them really have angered the opposition? It seems like a move that would mostly have outraged the Venezuelan government, and having them angry at you is hardly a moral failing.
Or even the next
This is pure speculation
"a clueless, inefficient bureaucracy... working tirelessly for politicians with an infinite capacity to recite unenforceable rules"
Varoufakis worked as an economist for Valve[1]
[1] http://blogs.valvesoftware.com/economics/it-all-began-with-a...
- The concerned politician has a slight sense of responsibility (even though paying banks first is less responsible to the people but has long-term goals)
- The concerned country has a minimal ability to pay
Venezuela has neither at this moment
https://www.nytimes.com/2017/04/12/business/venezuela-oil-de...
Greece had the largest default in history[0], virtually all private debt holders were forced to take a ~70% haircut.
[0]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Private_sector_involvement
The borrower sold a bond at par -- so they got their $1. As the entity who bought that bond, you're fucked... the borrower isn't making interest payments and the debt is looking like a bad debt. So you sell it at a distressed value, in your example $0.53, losing half your principal investment + interest, to cut your losses.
The entity buying the distressed asset knows it's junk, which is why they buy it at a steep discount. The fact that they may make a significant profit if the borrower starts making payments is irrelevant.
At this point people start whining about predatory Goldman Sachs, etc. Notice that there was no outcry when places like Greece and Venezuela were happily borrowing and squandering money based on German credit (Greece) or temporarily inflated oil revenues (Venezuela). In the case of Venezuela, they managed to also kill the golden goose by deferring critical investments in oil infrastructure and making dumb political decisions.
Critically if GS did not buy the debt Venezuela would have exactly the same money and exactly the same obligations so the fact GS 'owns' the debt or bob the accountant owns the debt is only important in so far as GS can apply more pressure.
They can and will talk to the issuer about payment and have every right to demand full payment -- the obligation to pay is not diminished by the secondary market value.
In my personal case, I had an opportunity to buy tax exempt New York General Obligation bonds at a discount during the 2008 financial crisis. I did so, although New York isn't Venezuela and the discount wasn't 50%, the interest payments are based on the originally issued amount and if I hold the bond to maturity I will get the full principal.
As an individual with 1 bond I don't have the leverage of an investment bank, but I'm still a creditor and will be get paid in the event of some serious financial crisis.
I am not saying the second system is universally better, but there is a reasonable argument for and against it.
Society does not exist to serve contracts - it is the other way around.
Also, contracts are between at least two parties. Which of these parties don't you consider being a part of society?
"Which of these parties don't you consider being a part of society?" - This is a strawman. Both are part of society, but the contract between them may do more harm than good in total. And blindly holding contracts sacred quickly leads to bad outcomes (non-competes, EULAs, some NDAs, etc.)
Man, the straw man fallacy on HN is like the proverbial hammer... You are talking about externalities of private contracts. Thing is, this also is subject to specific legal regulations in most Western countries. It is not subject to whichever moral judgement you are trying to fit in here.
Construction, industrial emissions, things like that are when the state can limit the civil rights of contract parties. Buying and selling bonds is generally considered not to have externalities that endanger the common good.
In short, "provides a financial lifeline to his authoritarian regime" and "desperate desire to gain resources needed to secure weapons and other instruments of oppression..."
If only to broadcast that it will be bad optics for any foreigner to support the current regime...or even appear to. Propaganda is likely going on both sides.
For example, I'd be loath to buy Sudanese investments, even if I could prove it was a secondary market buy. The association just has bad optics.
You mean it doesn't get much media attention.
> While Goldman Sachs defended its trade by saying that it bought the bonds on the open market from a broker, bankers and traders say the money ultimately ended up in Venezuela’s treasury because the seller was an institution with ties to the government.
Until the moment of the sale to GS the money had only been transferred between two entities associated with the government.
For this operation, the central bank received about $840 million in cash from GS, and PDVSA must now pay back $2.8 billion plus interest to GS.
Whereas before this operation, PDVSA (owned by the Venezuelan state) had to pay back $2.8 billion plus interest to the central bank (also owned by the Venezuelan state).
> So, net the country owes 2.8 billion USD + interest either way.
Venezuelas right hand owes money to Venezuelas left hand, both are Venezuela so Venezuela owes nobody. Now we have Goldman buying that dept from Venezuelas left hand and some more ( it can print as much as it wants of that ) for $5, Venezuela now owes 2.8 billion to someone else it has to pay back in the future in exchange for having $5 now. Those $5 benefit the current government and will affect any future government negatively.
When we say "Venezuela issues a 2.8 billion USD bond" that means that the central bank sells new bonds denominated in USD on the international market (most likely an auction among bank players in London or NY).
What had happened here is that they did that and then unbeknownst to them one banker sold their bonds to another banker. The act of reselling that debt on the secondary market does not magically increase that debt. It just changes whom you have to repay it to.
I took my assets out of the US stock market in 2007 and avoided some pain, and a few years later when I wanted to start investing again, I diversified a bit more to international funds. I understand the desire to do that now also.
Scroll to the section titled "Venezuela."
It's not something that is enjoyable to watch and rub in as the people there are starving and have resorted to mob justice such as lynching in order to have some rule of law.
Hopefully they get a proper change in rule soon.
And do not mention the secondary market. The Fed buys off the secondary market, but that doesn't mean it's not the one providing liquidity.
https://www.nytimes.com/2017/05/30/opinion/venezuela-needs-i...
If oilco does not default, great, you get a ridiculous discount and a high coupon.
If oilco does default, great, you have ample of collateral in tankers and other tangible assets you might be able to recover, so the recovery rate will be higher than the 30 cents that Goldman paid on the dollar. Also, whatever happens with the venezuelan government, the new government will also want to have a functional oilco.
I don't think that's the case simply because if it were that safe a bet the bonds wouldn't be trading at such a huge discount. It's the inherent risk that the government won't pay the bonds that enable them to trade at a discount. The bet is that the government won't default because if they did they would have a very hard time convincing people to buy bonds again in the future.
And this was a HUGE bet also, they must think the government is going to come down any moment.
But that is pretty terrible for the next government, that today would like no new debt to be issues, since it will all be spent today against them, and they will have to pay it in the future.
I'm not sure about this debt package, but I'm betting this was issued by the Venezuelan government to fund some real assets, like oil rigs or whatever. If that's the case, then the capital is still there, one just must make sure it generates profits.
A worse situation would be if the gov't loaned out the money, put it in suitcases and ef'ed off.
IT might not happen with this, but it might and being south american, its likely.
I couldn't find anything in the article, but I bet the debt was issued way before the unrest began. If there was any embezlement, it had to be way earlier.