That basic premise seems flawed to me for two reasons. First is that r is like a first deriative (of the asset value) and g as a second derivative (gdp being the first derivative of the total assets of a country, while gdp growth the seocnd), so they are not direcly copareable. The second is that r is very directly measurable, while the gdp and gdp growth have huge uncertainties and inconsistencies. Here's an example: the GDP of Bulgaria. In 1996 it was about $10BN, and in 2016 about $50BN. It grew in 20 years by 5, which means an annualized rate of 8.4%. However if you look at the historical gdp growth then the average for the last 20 years is about 1% (see [1] and [2]). Why the disconnect? I don't know, but if someone tells me that r>g because g is 1%, I take that with a grain of salt.
[1] http://www.tradingeconomics.com/bulgaria/gdp [2] http://www.tradingeconomics.com/bulgaria/gdp-growth