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What about the labourer? He is still being exploited when if it weren't for the profit motive he would not be required to sell his labour. That difference in profit, once the cost of the machinery and its maintenance is substracted, could be passed to the displaced worker.

Why should it go to the 'consumer'?

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Is the 'labourer' not a 'consumer'? If all prices fall due to competitive pressure, all consumers and thus all 'labourers' benefit from cheaper goods. Sure, the 'labourer' may not receive extra compensation due to lower costs and higher margins, but they end up able to purchase more with their dollar when prices fall.

We're all in the same market, I don't see why you would have to make a distinction between 'labourers' and 'consumer'.

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