I don't think the issue is purely semantic. The government provides a financial incentive to buy houses. I can decide whether I want to be $x richer and have a mortgage to pay. I can similarly decide if I want to be $y richer and have a health insurance plan.

I don't mean this as a rhetorical question, so I apologize if it comes across as snide, but from the point of view of economics, what is the difference? I'm trying to understand why one kind of tax incentive is objectionable and not the other.