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Would you consider the idea that if someone has murdered, they are more likely to murder again (compared to those who never have) an example of "pre-crime"?

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You're getting a rare down vote from me because this is such an obvious straw man. At least pretend to try to understand his point.

Can you explain? I agree with the parent poster. I was curious what he considered pre-crime.

My original question was an honest one (as is this one). Yeah, maybe the question was ignorant or stupid... my bad, I suppose. I don't understand why I'd need to pretend to understand anything... that seems dishonest.

I do not understand why an honest question deserves your downvote.

I didn't down vote you, but I did ignore your original comment because it was hyperbolic (bringing up murder and pre-crime). It didn't have any direct bearing (or seem to) to its parent post or the article. If you (and you seem to be) are just genuinely curious about their opinion on pre-crime that's fair, but it didn't seem related, it really did feel like a hyperbolic non-sequitur.

No.

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