> That's the wrong question to ask even though there is a very simple answer to it: that the state is not impartial.
The judiciary is what is in question, not the state per se.
But even if they're not impartial, is that necessarily bad here? Shouldn't the health of a country's citizens take priority over the interests of shareholders? Why should foreign businesses have greater rights than local businesses? (this is the contention of the Australian government)
> The better question to ask is why ISDS exists in the first place and this is something that the states and governments came up with and not the companies.
The nature of how trade deals are negotiated means we don't necessarily know who came up with it or pushed for it. But it's irrelevant in any case. What matters is its effects.
> Phillip Morris lost the case. Cases should be judged by the outcome and not by the pure fact that it takes place.
Plenty of these cases have been lost by governments. For example: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Investor-state_dispute_settlem...
> In any case that is all super irrelevant anyways as countries already signed a ton of BITs that include significantly inferior ISDS provisions.
It's because of existing ISDS provisions that we know of their problems. Why do we need even more?
> If you want to replace ISDS then companies will just walk up the local justice systems which will not be any cheaper or more efficient and that might go all the way up to the supreme court or the highest european courts.
“All the way up to the highest European courts”? That's not how the EU's legal system works. You can't just appeal cases to the EU level.
I'm unconvinced it would not be cheaper to sue at a national level, anyway. If only because local courts are less likely to award a huge payout in such cases.