Has Chomsky been blown out of the water? [pdf]
covingtoninnovations.com
covingtoninnovations.com
The answer is that such a thing would be impossible, because even though his theories and models are imperfect (as all theories and models are), they were so influential that they fundamentally changed his field.
Chomsky had a similar effect on linguistics, and even if much of his work ends up being rejected, his influence will have changed the field of linguistics forever. The theories that supersede Chomsky's will be developed within the paradigm he created.
At my university no one in the linguistics department actually subscribed to UG or any derivatives thereof but in the English department they did. I've observed sort of the same divide in countries. In English speaking counties UG seems to be the prevailing theory while it's much less so in non-English speaking countries.
Unfortunately people are extremely religious about their preferred theory of grammar, and it's hard to have a useful discussion about it when people are unable to remove themselves from the subject and discuss it objectively.
While I know that part of the pedagogy was giving students a grounding in dominant strains of formalism (in North American circles anyway), at times I felt a bit cheated out of a broader perspective.
Of course in practice many of the competing frameworks are weakly equivalent in terms of their descriptive power and the differences come down more to things like biological plausibility, computational complexity, how strongly you interpret the claims of UG, whether you have any interest in building tractable computational implementations, and so on. Or how you feel about the proliferation of empty functional categories, which was what bothered me the most from an empirical point of view.
[1] http://www.scientificamerican.com/article/evidence-rebuts-ch...
We also know that a stroke can seriously impair a person's ability to use language, even as their memory and powers of abstract reasoning are otherwise in tact.
The only way to make sense of that that I know of is to suppose that language engages some sort of specialized structures within the brain.
If such structures exist and are implicated in the acquisition of language by children across different cultures, then language must not be infinitely plastic. There must be certain structural properties that languages share that allow them to be acquired in such a regular, programmatic fashion.
Is this conclusion unwarranted, unreasonable, false, or dubious? Are there other ways of making sense of these phenomena?
Do you actually know that? Or are you supposing it because it makes sense? Given what I know about the differences in educational outcomes between socioeconomic groups in the US, I wouldn't be surprised if the rate of language acquisition depended on the number and variety of words that a child hears. It may very well be the case that the child of the Oxbridge academics does pick up language more quickly simply because he or she is exposed to more of it.
(Chapter "Language", Principles of Neural Science, 5th ed.)
That's hardly unique to HN. Following Chomsky, I'd argue that it's actually a universal behavior, which merely finds (slight) variation in expression according to the medium at hand. It even has a Latin name - argumentum ad logicam - and it's closely related to cherry picking except that it's applied to parts of the argument instead of to data. In fact, I just did it to you when I picked on the inessential "about HN" part of your sentence (which reads fine without it), and if you find that annoying then perhaps you should consider that you also did it when you jumped into a response about innuendo without addressing the more substantive discussion that had already occurred.
More on topic, the dude is a giant, and the linked pdf not worth the electrons it's printed on.
The answer is no, Chomsky will probably never be blown out of the water. His hypothesis is evolving, though.
For example, TD-Gammon plays a mean game of Backgammon, but this does not mean that Backgammon reduces to connectionism. TD-Gammon applies neural networks in a specific way with other algorithms involved, and then there are still underlying facts about what it takes to win at Backgammon which do not necessarily mandate anything that resembles connectionism.
1) "[...] greater awareness of the diversity of human languages, and especially the discovery by Daniel Everett of a Brazilian indigenous language, Pirahã, that apparently has no subordinate clauses"
That's the one and only evidence the author shows for this point. No examples on how the language works or how it stands in contrast to Universal Grammar, and no other mention of any other language that might be contradicting UG as well (even though the author implies that there are other languages that stand in contradiction to UG). Later on though the author says "It is not even undisputed that Pirahã lacks subordinate clauses" so the one and only evidence is still a maybe.
2)"The second is advances in cognitive psychology. [...] Nowadays we know that the human mind has complex, powerful, abstract capabilities in many areas, not just language, and new possibilities are opening up for explaining language from general mechanisms of thinking and learning."
This is not an argument and no evidence has been shown for this point.
3)"The third factor is the increasing use of data-driven methods in computational linguistics [...] In a data-driven approach, structure arises because sentences obviously consist of parts that can be recognized before recognizing the whole. [...] This predicts that the grammar of uncommon words will be simple and regular, but common words will have more quirks because we have more examples from which to learn them. That is exactly what we observe in language, and it’s a source of great clutter in a grammar constructed on Chomskyan principles."
As far as I know, the fact that sentences have parts that can be individually recognized before recognizing the whole, is not contradicting UG at all. To the best of my knowledge, UG only says that there is a structure, not how the structure comes about. So the only point left is the fact that common words have more varied usage and are harder to pin down as a particular specific element of the structure. I don't see how that relates to UG quite frankly. Maybe someone can enlighten me on this.
I have no particular love for UG, I just know of it on a very general sense, but if I was a teacher and a student gave me this article as a report, I would've failed him just for the lack of evidence.
(I don’t hear good things about it from political scientists.)
Immediately closes tab. I assume the rest of this is garbage innuendos, too?It's an appropriately weak start to a bland document.
Heyyy it's actually about Chomsky qua linguist instead of qua political whatever!
> It would be premature to conclude that universal grammar has been proven not to exist.
> But universal grammar has lost some credibility. Suppose the whole notion is eventually abandoned. What will be left?
> Second, psycholinguistics is going to be big business.
> In short, Chomskyanism may be on the wane,
Welp. This is some Fox News "I'm just saying" bullshit right here.
edit:
> Third, opportunities to discover more about language are continuing to open out before us.
Language attrition (and the dearth of linguists willing / able to work in the field to produce ethnographies of dying languages) are _decreasing_ our opportunities to learn about human language.
[0] -https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Betteridge%27s_law_of_headline...