Maths in a Twist [pdf]
ima.org.uk
ima.org.uk
The only way to get the arrows to connect right is if three of the square's corners are the same point.
For the last problem you can bend the sheet such as the two arrows point in to the same direction(up) and are in the same side, that is a rectangle. On the side of the arrows(left of the rectangle), the bottom half is an arrow pointing up and the upper half is an arrow also pointing up.
Then you bend the paper such that the lower side meets the center and the wrap around the upper side around the previous bend. I got a cilinder
Added in edit: I'm not going to answer any other questions or suggestions - I'd love to see the working behind the answers. Why should it be a Torus? Why should it be a Klein Bottle? Why should it be what you claim? Show me your working!
FWIW, as and when I get the chance I will upvote every guess that shows its working.
1. Deform the figure until the non-arrowed edges are a disc, and the arrowed edges are next to one another, so you have something like a Pac man figure where the arrowed edges are the mouth.
2. This figure clearly has 1 edge (the outer edge) but only 1 side -- to get to the 'back' side, go through the mouth
Since all the matters topologically is number of edges and sides, this is identical to a Mobius strip.
> Since all the matters topologically
> is number of edges and sides, ...
That turns out not to be the case. A torus with a hole and a sphere with a hole both have two sides and one edge.A Klein Bottle with a hole also has one side and one edge, and is not a Möbius strip.
So that's not enough, and might not be right.
Cliff Stoll is a treasure.
It's a nice argument, but is it valid ... ?
The argument goes something like: there's a universal property on quotient spaces X with quotient map Q which says that if F(a) = F(b) for all a and b in X such that a and b are identified (a ~ b), there's a unique continuous G such that F = G ∘ Q.
So let's take a and b in the top left space. We have a homeomorphism f such that a ~ b if and only if f(a) ~ f(b). Since quotients take equivalent elements to equal elements, Q2(f(a)) = Q2(f(b)). Therefore there's a unique continuous g1 such that Q2 ∘ f = g1 ∘ Q1. We can apply the the same reasoning to Q1 ∘ f^-1 to get a unique continuous g2 such that Q1 ∘ f^-1 = g2 ∘ Q2. Furthermore, g1 and g2 are inverses: g1 ∘ g2 ∘ Q2 = g1 ∘ Q1 ∘ f^-1 = Q2 ∘ f ∘ f^-1 = Q2, and Q2 is surjective. Therefore g = g1 is a homeomorphism.
If you think this sounds a lot like continuity, you're right, but it adds one crucial detail: continuity only requires that whatever open sets we have for Y, their preimage is open (so for example you can make Y have the topology of a point, and Q1 would still be continuous). For quotient maps, we require that any set in Y with an open preimage be open, which fixes exactly one topology. This makes sense, because otherwise the quotient could pick from a laundry list of (non-isomorphic) topologies which keep the quotient map continuous, breaking the topological invariance of the quotient map.
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quotient_space_(topology)