> I couldn't disagree more! Wear on roads is to the fourth power of pressure.
No, it's probably to the fourth power of force, not pressure. These are distinct and separate concepts in physics.
> We could assume the tyres were solid rubber for the purposes of this conversation and the wear on the road would be the same due to the gross vehicle mass devided by the number of tyres.
Ok, but in that case we must be talking about force, not pressure. Because the pressure is force divided by contact area...
> As another commenter pointed out, I've ridden my bike with 150psi tyre inflation pressure but the weight per wheel is my weight + bike weight devided by contact area of each tyre. Sure, higher pressure tyres typically have less contact area, but the gross weight of the bike is tiny compared to a truck the road wear from cycling is pretty much zero.
Now you're mixing pressure and force in a way that doesn't make any sense to me...
So dmurray is saying that "correct relationship is linear in the fourth power of the weight per axle" which IMHO is correct (but to fit with my argument above I would use the words "force exerted by tire on road" rather than "weight per axle", it's the same).
You (TheSpiceIsLife) are talking about something else... I don't know what... I can't say if you're right or wrong, but I feel quite certain that what you say is beside the point.
My (only) point was that the force that a wheel can exert on the road (what Newton called "action") is
A = [current "overpressure" inside tire] * [contact surface area]
and the force that the road exerts on the tire (what Newton called "reaction") is
R = [pressure on road] * [contact surface area]
Since [contact surface area] is one and the same in both expressions and Newton says R = A it must follow that [pressure on road] = [current "overpressure" in tire].
EDIT: Extended to better explain context of my argument.