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> There is no relationship between county-level racial bias in police shootings and crime rates (even race-specific crime rates), meaning that the racial bias observed in police shootings in this data set is not explainable as a response to local-level crime rates.

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Can you ELI5 this sentence. I don't understand it despite staring at it for a while.

Well Timmy, an unarmed black person is more likely to be shot by the police then that of another skin color. Some people are saying this is because the crime rate for blacks is much higher, and it may indeed be higher. But what we see is that regardless of the crime rate, some counties are just more likely to shoot blacks then others. So one part of America might have a lower crime rate then another but is still more likely to have the police shoot an unarmed black person.

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