Should Bernie Madoff Have Charged 1% or 2% Fees?
larrycheng.com
larrycheng.com
If you start with the client's $300, deliver 10% return a year, take 1% in fees per year, reinvest the fees in your own fund, then after 150 years
Client's fund: 123E+6
Fees: 362E+6
Huh? How is it possible that the fees are more than the client's fund? It turns out that the fees Bernie puts in his own fund don't get hit with the 1% fee themselves, so they're getting a return of 10% per year instead of 9%. After about 75 years, that makes the fees fund come out ahead.With 2% fees, the results after 150 years are
Client: 31E+6
Fees: 454E+6
I.e., Bernie makes more on a 2% fee than a 1% fee, reason is restored.With a bit of luck, I haven't made a mistake. It'd be nice if someone confirmed or contradicted my numbers. Here's what I did:
-module(bernie).
-export([loop/5]).
loop(Year, End_year, Capital, Fees, _Fee_percent) when Year == End_year ->
io:fwrite("year: ~p Capital: ~g Fees: ~g\n", [Year, Capital, Fees]);
loop(Year, End_year, Capital, Fees, Fee_percent) ->
loop(Year + 1, End_year, Capital * (1.10 - Fee_percent),
Fees * 1.10 + Capital * Fee_percent, Fee_percent).
Edit: indented code to try and stop it from getting mangled.Now change years to months and leave the rate per period the same and maybe you have an analysis applicable to a startup. Now the fees are more like 12% v. 24% on return rates of 120%. And the time scale is about 12 years.
Nah, still too long for a startup.