P-values are inconsistent
johndcook.com
johndcook.com
If H0 (null hypothesis) is mu = a (and you know sigma = 1 and its normal) then you can pretty easily calculate the p value from an observation x by taking z = x - u and checking that against the normal distribution.
However, how do you do that is H0 is a < mu < b? Do you assume that mu is uniformly distributed between a and b? If so, then H' does not imply H. E.g. if H is true then pr(mu > 0) is 0.5, but if H' is true then pr(mu > 0) = 0.52/1.34 < 0.5.
Or, am I wrong about how to do the hypothesis test?
Edit: Err, maybe I got that wrong. Doing the above calculation would favor the broader hypothesis (p=0.047 vs. p=0.043).
I'm sure there are other problems with using the p value as a measure of certainty (though I don't know them) but this specific criticism seems silly.
The actual problem might be that standard statistical tests are difficult to use, but then isn't that why the theory had to be developed in the first place?