Most companies push the 409A valuations as low as possible precisely because of income tax ramifications on exercise.
Most companies push the 409A valuations as low as possible precisely because of income tax ramifications on exercise.
If your company says the 409A is $1.50/share but people are selling on secondary markets for $4/share, you must use $4/share when computing your exercise benefit.
If there's no secondary market, it's the last 409A value.
From what I can tell, taxes will be based on the values in Form 3921 (for ISOs and ESPPs), which is delivered by the employer.[0]
Here's a sample 3921.[1] The FMV is delivered in Box 4. My question is where does that value come from? Is it the last 409A valuation, or is it required to use sale data from secondary markets?
I've received several of these forms over the years, and the FMV has always been the value from the last 409A. I have no idea if there was a secondary market for the shares.
I worked at a place that didn't issue 3921's (in the .com go round). I had a hell of a time reaching someone still at the company who could give me that information almost a year later (and after several rounds of devastating layoffs). I really don't know what she based the figure on.
[0] http://www.startuplawblog.com/2011/01/05/companies-remember-...