Mutations in Y Chromosome made us separate species from Neanderthals
newscientist.com
newscientist.com
I've seen some (intertwined) hypotheses in the news lately of why there's no neanderthal Y chromosomes: the mixed-race-neanderthal-Y boys didn't do so well for some reason, the human Y chromosome had advantages, or the neanderthal-Y wasn't compatible genetically.
How about the more obvious guess: homo sapiens invaded and conquered neanderthals, killing all the males (and their Y chromosomes with them). It's speculative, but it would definitely not be the first time in history that such a thing has happened. And the neaderthals live for hundreds of thousands of years, then disappear just tens of thousands of years after homo sapiens show up in their neighborhood. So it's likely one group wiped out the other. And it's not hard to imagine keeping the women when you decide to kill a whole neighboring tribe.
I actually came up with the hypothesis about how the two groups most likely interbred just a few days before I found out in the news that the neanderthal Y-chromosome disappeared. I don't know if I should be excited or disgusted that the evidence might support my hypothesis.
It appears what happened is much more interesting - Neanderthal males mated with female humans of African origin, but the male offspring were infertile.
Edit. I should add the scientific paper behind this New Scientist article proposes a precise genetic mechanism for how the Neanderthal Y chromosome is lost which is further evidence the loss is due Y Chromosome incompatibility.
Only males have Y chromosomes so if only "Mutations in Y Chromosome made us separate species from Neanderthals" then female Homo Sapiens and Neanderthals would be genetically the same. I know I'm being a bit pedantic about the use of the word 'made' in the title but it seems important to me.
Haldane's rule covers why this occurs [1].
Many of the shortcuts taken in TFA seem to lead to confusion rather than understanding, so this might be worth a read.
Something like one mule (horse-donkey hybrid) in tens of thousands is fertile, having by chance received just the right combination of chromosomes to be able to reproduce. But the rest are sterile. The rare successful interbreeding doesn't make horses and donkeys the same species either, despite being closely related. (In their case, IIRC, the infertility of hybrids has to do with differing chromosome counts between horses and donkeys.)
So we can have some Neanderthal genes (whether from prior to y-chromosome differentiation or from the rare successful interbreeding or from successful and fertile but rare female offspring) but still be separate species.
Besides, it's oft cited that we share 98% of our DNA with chimps, and nobody's claiming that we're the same species.
Many humans (all non Africans) are a hybrid between two different species - all this result is telling us is that Africans and Neanderthals really are two different species.
Claiming that blacks are a different species, not even a different race, is some next level Hitler / KKK / etc. shit.
But basically, I just think you don't know what you're talking about. For example, I just typed "species" into my search box and Google handily provided the following from Wikipedia:
> A species is often defined as the largest group of organisms in which two individuals are capable of reproducing fertile offspring, typically using sexual reproduction.
Go try and fix Wikipedia if you wish to spread nonsense.
I may be missing something, but the claim I've read around the Internet is that "Africans" are the only pure Human group, and are a different species from Neanderthals, while other Human groups have a small percentage of Neanderthal genes.
Whether that's true or not, it seems like a far less problematic claim than the one you mention.
This study is telling us that Africans and Neanderthals are not able to produce fertile male offspring when a male Neanderthal reproduces with a African female. This is a common occurrence when two different species breed.
I do agree that it is extraordinary that the meaning of this discovery is not recognised more widely, but please do not place words in my mouth as to what this means.
That number is shockingly low to me, which probably means I misunderstand some subtlety of what you're saying. Could you expand/explain? (I'd have expected a figure starting with at least two 9s [99+%])
The more interesting observation is that the 2% is not the same 2% in everyone of a European genetic background. Overall at least 25% of the Neanderthal genome is present across the whole population.
Ah, nice, that meets my steelmanning quota for this week.
It has its own, non-homologous region too that doesn't trade DNA.