We’ve Been Measuring Inequality Wrong
theconversation.com
theconversation.com
The fact that they chose spending rather than wealth makes me wonder why it was chosen. The authors claim that spending inequality is the correct measure, but then provide zero research-based justification for this decision.
Reading the paper, they claim in regards to wealth and related forms of inequality, "none measures inequality in living standards, which should be the ultimate concern when assessing economic fairness". Well, that's a fine presumption, but perhaps we're more concerned by the increasingly capability of the top 0.1% of the wealth of this country (ie, the vast majority of it, as much as 80-90%) to buy our political process and start us down a feedback loop of no return.
Point being, these economists seem to bring in an awful lot of political and moral prejudgments into this study (as is their profession's frequent wont).
If you have another job then you can possibly have both the income and wealth, but that is not exactly a guarantee for everyone. To add to that, while things may not be so bad right now, your link also shows periods where total farm household income was considerably less than the general population. 'Land rich, cash poor' is very much a thing.
I was reading this recently.
https://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/economics/keynes/...
Protip: Want to read any historical stuff on economics? You'll be slumming with commies.
Anyway what is amusing reading that it's apparent that the policies promoted by orthodox economists have not changed in 200-300 years. And actually predate economics as a field. It would be like going to the doctor circa 2016 and being told the results of your MRI indicate a vital need to apply leaches to your nether regions. So yeah does seem that for economics political and moral prejudgments trump theory 99% of the time.
“How can I accept a doctrine, which sets up as its bible, above and beyond criticism, an obsolete economic textbook which I know to be not only scientifically erroneous but without interest or application to the modern world? How can I adopt a creed which, preferring the mud to the fish, exalts the boorish proletariat above the bourgeois and intelligentsia who, with whatever faults, are the quality of life and surely carry the seeds of all human advancement? Even if we need a religion, how can we find it in the turbid rubbish of the Red bookshops. It is hard for an educated, decent, intelligent son of Western Europe to find his ideals here, unless he has first suffered some strange and horrid process of conversion which has changed all his values.”
I think it's self-evident, since they include bequests in total lifetime spending: spending is how much one actually gets to enjoy one's wealth.
> Well, that's a fine presumption, but perhaps we're more concerned by the increasingly capability of the top 0.1% of the wealth of this country (ie, the vast majority of it, as much as 80-90%) to buy our political process and start us down a feedback loop of no return.
When most of the top ten political spenders are unions, I don't think it's the wealthy who are buying the political process; if anything they are buying it back.
The basic assumption--that "spending power" is more important than "wealth" or "income"--is questionable, but the authors don't really spend any time defending it. The reason the richest 1 percent spent a lower percentage of their income is because they don't have to, and because they are able to re-invest their money (not counted as spending) in making themselves more money. The poorest 20% do not have that luxury.
The arguments about how high taxes disincentivize work assume that income == work. But that's not correct. Productivity growth has been tremendous over the last two decades, and workers have been producing more and more, but that hasn't been translating into income gains, except for those in the top 2 or 3 percent, which is precisely what the income inequality gap reveals, which is apparently why the authors of this study chose to use a different standard.
"Facts and figures are hard things. They upset prior views and demand attention." Say the people who came up with an alternative model of measuring inequality because the simpler model upsets their preferred policy, and would rather ignore the problematic numbers by creating new ones.
People are (more or less) paid for their time and not their productivity. That they are not getting paid more suggests that the supply of worker hours has been more or less keeping up with the demand.
A "family" color television in 1975 was similar to what they cost today ($500 - $1,000) but that's not adjusted for inflation, and the same money today will get one that's over twice the screen size, is far more reliable and has a far better picture. In constant dollars today's far better product costs over 75% less.
Do they need to? Spending power which includes the estate one leaves one's heirs represents one's total quality of life (measured in money, anyway).
No one really care about the exact level of inequality. They care about the trend (that inequality is much higher then it used to be). If they showed that that trend was different then what everyone thought that would be interesting, but just showing that this measure reports a different level is not so interesting.
And yet they work longer hours than most of civilised countries an sometimes work two jobs. Either they are really stubborn or the research or the conclusions from it have some flaws.
Overall the article leaves the impression of authors with a conclusion in mind and a determination to find data which matches
Economists... Economic science... It would be more honest not to disguise oneself under scientific methods, and that should be renamed "economic politics" (and while we are at it, let's rename sociology to "politics" and philosophy to "religion", everything will be clearer).
I have no trust for 'sciences' that cannot tell me precisely and accurately what the effect of an action will be. If the author's of the paper could tell me that an implementation of policy X would yield an effect of Y within an error of Z, within a certain timeframe then I'd have at least a small degree of trust. But, even then, they'd have to also specify metrics to track so that an observer could validate that the effect is 'on course'.
We have a distribution of wealth in the world that looks like a hockey stick and we actually need something like a bell curve.
In fact, that is the basic conservative argument as to why the government should let the rich keep their income. The idea is that investment by the wealthy increases total size of the national economy, which in turn leads to everyone's income going up.
The problem is that this process hasn't been working for about three or four decades. The rich keep investing their money and getting richer, but income for most other people is stagnant or going down.
Also, if the wealthy are not working, how come they keep getting wealthier? And furthermore, why is it that studies show that Americans work more hours than people in other industrialized countries?
The nice thing is that these sorts of propaganda attempts are failing because people know from their own experience that income is stagnating.
So on the one hand conservatives say Social Security is going to collapse in 15 or 20 years and no one will get anything, and on the other hand they say everyone is going to retire to a life of wealth and luxury.
Speaking of which, I wonder how many young or middle age conservative voters would consider it a good deal to sign away their future SSA income for one cent on the dollar.