Olbers’ Paradox: Why Is the Sky Dark at Night? (2000)
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If we could see deep into the infrared, we might see more faraway stars and galaxies, whose light has been red-shifted by the expansion of space.
If we could see wavelengths in the single cm range, we might perceive a dim uniform glow in the night sky: the cosmic background radiation.
If we could see radio waves we might see all sorts of light sources in the night sky.
Of course, if there were an infinite amount of light (visible or not) reaching Earth, you'd be dead.
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Then we would have light "at all frequencies" which could be said to be "an infiinite amount of light" but the total amount of energy would still be finite.Most of these explanations don't seem to first figure out whether if you had a uniform distribution of stars (at discrete points) in an infinite (Euclidean) space, if the amount of radiated energy seen at an arbitrary point would diverge if you summed over all available frequencies. If it doesn't, it seems like lack of sensitivity is the main issue here, and the cosmological arguments are simply additional reasons for why it doesn't happen.
From what I take it, you were basically simply asking, "what if the 'infinite amount' at 'all frequencies' were reaching you in a non-uniform distribution of frequencies? - would the original arguments and premises still stand?"
I believe the minimum energy of a photon is directly bound by the age of the universe, so if the universe was twice as old you could have photons at 1/2 the energy. You do get more light sources as you increase distance, but the inverse square law balances that. So Sum (1/n) from 1 to N which really slowly grows to infinity. As in 10^100 = 230.84
The sky is not dark at night when you use the right telescope. So either the sky changes when you point a telescope at it, or the 'sky' as we see it, is just an artefact of what our primitive eyes and mammalian brain sees.
If you assume for the sake of argument that all stars are as bright as the sun, and that stars have a uniform density throughout the universe (either a finite-but-huge or infinite universe, it makes little difference here), then you could solve for the mean intensity of light throughout, or in our case, "how bright the sky is at night."
The article makes a classic (and really hard to escape! I've seen this sort of thing called a "paradox" on many occasions.) mistake of examining two infinite quantities (infinite stars, up to an infinite distance away) and assuming that they must cancel each other out, that infinity/infinity=1. But not all infinities are the same, and infinity/infinity can work out to 0, or to 0.1, or to pi, or to infinity (as in the case of "# real numbers"/"# integers"), or to anything else; you have to look at the details -- what kind of infinity is it? -- and figure out how they compare.
To determine the amount of energy reaching us, we need to integrate over the energy density divided by the square of the distance over the whole 3d space. As any physicist can tell you, an integral over the whole space will diverge unless the kernel falls off faster than 1/r^2.
This means that one of the following must be true
a) either the universe is finite, ie. the density falls off
b) we don't integrate over the whole space (we can't see far enough due to age of universe)
Which is exactly the argument this article is making
Edit: in other words, infinite or finite-but-huge is an important difference when integrating over constant density; the former integral will diverge, the latter will not
This is false, because it ignores the metric expansion of spacetime. We can see radiation from objects that are now ~46.5 billion light-years from Earth.
This isn't picking nits. The explanation given here makes it sound like the Universe is a Euclidean volume that got instantaneously filled with stars, at roughly their present density, and that this density is low enough that light from distant stars hasn't reached us yet. If this were true, it wouldn't only explain why the sky is dark now, but predict that it has always been dark. We know this is false: for the first 380,000 years after the Big Bang, the Universe was filled with hydrogen plasma and completely opaque to radiation, which we can still see in the form of CMBR. As spacetime expands, energy density decreases, space becomes less light-emitting and more transparent, and light already in transit becomes red-shifted. Our field of vision is still technically flooded with light, as it always has been, but by now the red-shift is so extreme that the light is in the radio spectrum.
You talk about the radiation generated before 1M years in the universe. This article talked about the light from the existing stars in the universe.
> Astronomers have concluded that the universe began some 12 to 15 billion years ago. That means we can only see the part of it that lies within 12 to 15 billion light-years from us. There may be an infinite number of stars beyond that cosmic horizon but we can’t see them because their light has not yet arrived. And the observable part of the universe contains too few stars to fill up the sky with light.
(Emphasis mine because that's where the error is: 13 billion year-old light has traveled over a distance that is now much higher than than 13 billion light-years)
Potential ambiguity (in cases such as this one) is one of the reasons why using light-years for distances may not be a good idea.
(By the way, there are real astronomers arguing about this, too, e.g. http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/Dltt_is_Dumb.html . So it's not just this nerd ranting on HN).
GRB 090423 (admittedly, not a star -- it's a gamma ray burst) happened approximately 13 billion years ago. This means that light traveled for 13 billion years to reach us -- but, by the time it got to us, GRB 090423 was no longer 13 billion light-years from us, because all that space got bigger! GRB 090423 "was" about 9.2 Gpc away from us by the time that light reached us, i.e. about 30 billion light-years.
If the light that hits us is 13 billion years old, that object (assuming it still exists) is a lot farther than 13 billion light-years from us now.
Yes, it's perfectly wrong, because those objects are not 13Gly away from us. A light-year really is defined as 300,000 km multiplied by whatever number of seconds there are in a year. The object is not at 13e9 x 300,000 x <a lot of seconds> kilometers from us if it took 13 billion years for the light to reach us.
> It isn't a surprise to anyone to point out that the source of something that was moving away from us 13Gy ago is now further away than it was.
If I wanted to give words the least charitable interpretation, I could point out that their motion has nothing to do with this -- they would still be farther than 13 Gly away from us even if they would not be moving away relative to the Earth :-).
I lost a youtube video that explains Universe. Basically a universe observer is like an ant sitting on a big balloon that is constantly being pump with air. So while the balloon age might be 12 billion years old, the speed the air is pumped in it makes it grow and therefore objects "placed" far further than originally; hence 46B for an observer.
This model is wrong, obviously, but the reason has nothing to do with Olber's paradox.
History, everyone. Olber's paradox is important because of the history, not its relevance to 21st century physics.
And there were many variants of Steady State, as the model was discovered independently after Einstein, and refined throughout the 1950s as its adherents struggled to explain new observations that distant quasars are far more common than near ones. There was even a brief (and apparently failed) attempt by Hoyle to revive a Steady State as late as 1993, involving widely varying rates of expansion in different regions of the Universe.
What ultimately disproved Steady State was seeing the CMBR. None of this has anything to do with Olber's paradox, which is not an issue in a Steady State model for exactly the same reasons it's not an issue in modern cosmology.
A star moving in the opposite direction of us that emitted light 15 billion years ago that we are just now seeing has moved a lot further away in that 15 billion years it took that initial light to reach us.
The correct calculation involves an integral, an example of which you can see here:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/widget/widgetPopup.jsp?p=v&id=45...
Not necessarily. By the time the light arrives here, its point of departure (and parts of its path through space) may have receded because of cosmological expansion, so its total travel distance, and its velocity, are no longer synchronized as they would be in Newtonian physics.
Your remark would have been true for the static universe that Einstein believed to exist when he proposed the first version of the cosmological constant (before 1929).
We haven't observed objects with redshifts that indicate distances larger than 13.some Gly away.
Yes, the physical objects are farther, but the point is moot. Those objects aren't the same as what we see today. They're totally different. We don't know what they look like today. Even low-mass stars have lived and died.
In summary, there is no way for us to see those 46.5 Gly objects other than wait 50 Gy (with our given technology)
Fortunately, we have other galaxies, such as EGSY8p7 (z=8.68) have been imaged in the infrared, and as such, their distance confirmed.
However, you've just reiterated what GP has said. I maintain that nobody is denying that the object that has been observed is more distant than it was 13Gy ago, however, the light that we are currently observing emanated from an object that was only 13Gly away.
As I stated in my previous comment, the galaxies that we are presently observing are much different, and much farther away today, it's just going to take a lot of time for us to see what they look like today.
You're seeing a baby and claiming to have seen the senile crank that the baby potentially became over 19Gy. The baby we're currently observing may as well be dead.
If the article author is stating that 13Gly is the maximum distance anything can be from us, then the author is false. However, that's not what the author is saying. The author is saying we cannot see past 13Gly because the light has not arrived, and this is patently TRUE. The author makes NO claim about the current location of the objects.
the light that we are currently observing emanated
from an object that was only 13Gly away
Using http://www.astro.ucla.edu/~wright/CosmoCalc.html, the light of an object at redshift z=8.68 was emitted 13.141 Gyr ago, 0.579 Gyr after the Big Bang. The co-moving distance (to where that object was) is 30.444 Gly, but at the time the light was emitted, it was only 3.145 Gly away (=30.444 Gly/(1+8.68)). we cannot see past 13Gly because the light has not
arrived, and this is patently TRUE
We should be able to detect light from Population III stars, i.e., redshifts between z=20 and z=100, so about 13.540-13.704 Gyr in the past (about 0.016-0.180 Gyr since the Big Bang) and at a co-moving distance of about 35.851-42.045 Gly (or distances from us in the past of 0.416-1.707 Gly).Edited to add: For more information, refer to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scale_factor_%28cosmology%29, specifically the FLRW metric, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Friedmann%E2%80%93Lema%C3%AEtr....
The short version: The distant object wasn't traveling through space, it sat stationary while more space came into existence in the gap between us and it, resulting in it being farther away. This happens everywhere, all the time -- it's what cosmologists are talking about when they say the Universe is "expanding". The laws that prohibit faster-than-light travel concern movement within space ("peculiar motion"), not the expansion of space itself.
"Misconceptions about the Big Bang" http://www.physics.uq.edu.au/download/tamarad/papers/SciAm_B...
Original comment: Is this really not obvious to people? It's about subtended angles - simple geometry. As the Earth's distance from a star increases, it subtends a decreasing angle in that star's "sky." Assuming radiation does indeed proceed radially and in straight lines, at increasing distance the Earth is capable of catching a decreasing portion of that star's radiation. As the distance approaches infinity, the subtended angle approaches zero and the amount of light reaching us approaches zero. The star is just as bright, but most of its radiation goes somewhere else besides Earth.
Imagine building a giant spherical shell around a star. Its radius equals the distance between earth and the star. It catches 100% of that star's radiated energy. Now paint the Earth on the inside of the shell, actual size. It looks, to someone standing on the surface of that star, like the real earth, i.e. a tiny dot. Now divide the surface area of the dot, by the surface area of the sphere (4)(pi)(r^2). That's how much of that star's energy our planet catches. Assuming zero degradation across space.
So imagine you're in a forest of trees the closest of which are 800 miles away from you. You'd see the goddamned sky just fine.
The night sky is dark, but it doesn't mean it isn't full of rays of lights heading our way. It's darker than the day sky due to the Sun being so close, yes, but the night sky is full of light, everywhere we look. It's only because the way our minds perceive relatives, we call the night sky "dark".
Also, setting aside the issue of expansion and redshift, if you imagine a sphere with a uniformly illuminated interior (imagine a surface composed of so many stars that counting them individually makes no sense) and an observation point at the center, if you increase the radius of the sphere, there's no change in the energy received at the center.
This idea works for an infinite plane as well, and is a bit easier to grasp. Imagine an infinite plane with a fixed optical brightness, and an observation point at some distance d. Now double the distance -- no change in received energy because the plane is infinite in extent.
But the number of stars at a given distance increases as the distance increases, and this increase exactly cancels out the decrease in the amount of light from a given star that reaches the Earth. So your argument does not explain why the night sky is dark.
> Now divide the surface area of the dot, by the surface area of the sphere (4)(pi)(r^2). That's how much of that star's energy our planet catches.
Now do it the other way: draw a sphere around the Earth with some radius r. Calculate how many stars are on that sphere. The number increases as r^2; and, as you have shown, the amount of light reaching Earth from a given star decreases as r^2. So, as I said above, the increase in the number of stars exactly cancels out the decrease in the amount of light from each star that reaches the Earth; thus, the total starlight reaching Earth from a given radius r is a constant, independent of r.
There is if you believe General Relativity is correct as applied to the universe as a whole. And if you don't, you have no model at all with which to make any predictions about what we should observe, so there's no reason to believe anything.
A ball of radius R around Earth contains R^3 stars. The angular size of Earth as seen from each star is 1/R^2 or more. So the total light coming to Earth is proportional to R. As R goes to infinity, you get Olbers paradox.
If you insist on talking about trees, in an infinite forest of trees that are 800 miles apart and 1mm thick, you wouldn't see the sky.
If the universe is infinite and filled uniformly with stars, the 1/r^2 falloff in the radiation captured from each star is cancelled by r^2 dependence on the number of stars at radius r. So as you integrate r from 0 to ∞, you accumulate an infinite amount of radiation.
Is this really not obvious to you? It's all about infinitesimals - simple calculus.
First you fake incredulity about how people aren't finding it "obvious", although it's unclear exactly what you think is obvious (the paradox? its resolution? modern cosmology?).
Then you launch into an explanation of the inverse-square law for a single point source. What's your intention here? By itself it doesn't demonstrate how to resolve the paradox. (As you say, the resolution is that the universe is not infinite. Thanks for adding that in the edit.)
Overall, your top-level comment was incomprehensible, as evidenced by the large number of people who thought you were trying to use the inverse-square law to resolve the paradox.
Also, gravity and electromagnetism increase at close proximity, so on less-than-cosmic scales, they overcome the minute amount of spatial expansion.
FYI, gravity might eventually overcome spatial expansion on a cosmic scale. But we don't know. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Crunch
"Recent experimental evidence (namely the observation of distant supernovae as standard candles, and the well-resolved mapping of the cosmic microwave background) has led to speculation that the expansion of the universe is not being slowed down by gravity but rather accelerating. However, since the nature of the dark energy that is postulated to drive the acceleration is unknown, it is still possible (though not observationally supported as of today) that it might eventually reverse its developmental path and cause a collapse."
I think another question for the Big Crunch is what type of "fuel" is needed to create an exothermic fusion reaction comparable to the Big Bang? For example, the sun compresses hydrogen to produce helium and release massive energy. Black holes are undoubtedly compressing helium enough to make Beryllium, but this doesn't seem to release any energy that can escape the gravity that created the pressure required in the first place. So for the Big Crunch - Big Bang cycle to hold up, what type of matter (and how much of it) has be be compressed (and is gravity the only force that's compressing it) to the point where some type of "fusion" reaction produces enough energy to escape the compression forces?
No, it couldn't. The nuclear waste will still have the same average energy density, on the scale of the universe as a whole, as the unexhausted fusion fuel does now. We know that energy density is too small now to make the universe recollapse, so the same must be true any time in the future.
> what type of "fuel" is needed to create an exothermic fusion reaction comparable to the Big Bang?
The Big Bang was not an exothermic fusion reaction. Our current best model is that the Big Bang was caused by a very large energy density being transferred from the inflaton field (the field that drove inflation in the very early universe) to the various fields in the Standard Model of particle physics (electrons, quarks, photons, etc.). This "reheating" created the hot, dense, rapidly expanding state that we refer to as the Big Bang.
http://curious.astro.cornell.edu/about-us/104-the-universe/c...
We can't get particle to seriously travel faster than light and there is entire galaxy going faster??
If it's photons emitting from flashlights pointed in opposite directions relative to each other, then are they compressing space as they travel so as not to exceed the speed of light? Or even massive particles accelerated to over half the speed of light at different times around an ellipse so there is a moment when their opposite directions make one traveling at greater than the speed of light relative to the other? (Or even particle accelerators on two different planets already expanding away from each other - does this just mean that space is really twisting and turning all the time to make sure no particle ever exceeds the speed of light relative to any other particle?)
It has been my understanding - and appreciation at Einstein's unbelievable insight and brilliance - that relativity is truly relative because there really isn't any such thing as an arbitrary particle or space that all other motions are measured from. But if this is true, does that really mean that space is really so constantly twisting and turning that SOL can't be exceeded?
I'm sure there are great answers to this, but I've always wanted a definitive one. Anyone have any comments on this?
It's a theory postulating that a particle can't travel faster than the speed of light in relationship to a particle that isn't moving. In practice all particles are moving in relation to some other particle thus it's not something you can visibly measure or see. At least that is the way I always viewed it.
IANAP, but I've never read that space twists to prevent the SOL from being exceeded. I think you're thinking of time and mass. It would require an infinite amount of time or infinite acceleration to for something to accelerate to the speed of light relative to something else.
Space is twisted by the presence of matter, and we call that gravity.
If it's photons emitting from flashlights pointed in opposite directions relative to each other, then are they compressing space as they travel so as not to exceed the speed of light
No. My understanding is that from the point of view of a photon time is completely stopped. Nothing moves relative to it because of this. Since nothing moves relative to it, nothing is exceeding the speed of light relative to it.
It's based on the observation of two points of references moving a different speeds shining light and the light from each traveling at the same speed. So the speed of light is measured relative to other light. The speed of light is constant, and it is so regardless of point of reference. Flashlights pointed in opposite directions has nothing to do with the speed of light. The light is traveling at the same speed in opposite directions.
Relative to a local inertial frame, i.e., relative to an inertial observer (i.e., an observer in free fall, feeling no force) who is at the same spatial location as the particle whose speed is being measured. That is the only context in which the concept of "relative velocity", as it appears in the "can't travel faster than light" condition, has any physical meaning.
All of your suggested examples attempt to compare "relative velocity" between objects that are not at the same spatial location. That has no physical meaning in GR.
> does that really mean that space is really so constantly twisting and turning that SOL can't be exceeded?
The speed of light stays the same and both time and space twist and turn around it. It's weird, but having a preferred reference frame would be just as weird. c is a dimensionless constant, and light happens to travel at that speed because it has no rest mass.
So it's not that you can't travel at c meters per second; it's that if you do, you'll zero out your velocity in the "seconds" component.
To cite an example from one of Neal DeGrasse Tyson's lectures, that's one of the funky things about photons from the most distant stars: they don't experience the passage of time at all from their own point of view. They arrive at our eyes/telescopes/radios as soon as they're emitted. Meanwhile, their velocity is limited to c from our point of view. The same thing would presumably happen to you if you could travel at c... but there would be other inconvenient effects in that case, such as an infinite increase in mass.
In fact, space is being created everywhere, including yourself and the computer screen. However the amount is so small that you don't notice and local forces nullify the change anyway. With large distances, this amount accumulates, and overwhelms the force of gravity and starts to create the apparent acceleration of distant galaxies away from us. Further explanation from paulddraper: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=11068125
It seems like creating space to fill the "voids" between particles moving at-what-would-be-faster than the speed of light is like a tesseract for whatever matter is in that rapidly created/expanding space. Unless that space is only accessible to the particles creating it by their relative motion (which still gives us problems with our ideas of dimensions)?
What you said isn't even pop science, it is blatantly wrong.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metric_expansion_of_space
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dark_energy
And the money quote:
It is called "dark" because it is not interacting with normal matter, but only with the space time structure.
What I said was an attempt to explain how the basic model cosmologists use works in layman's terms. It wasn't intended to be "pop science" or even "real science"; that would be building the model, not trying to explain how it works.
The references you give are not "real science" either. Try looking in a cosmology textbook or a peer-reviewed paper. Or, even better, work out the science for yourself instead of arguing from authority.
That's an intriguing way of phrasing, never thought of it this way. I'm aware that space is expanding, so space must indeed being created in-between.
I'm guessing this space has to contain no energy at all, so it must be made of absolutely nothing, right?
No, because the light speed limit only applies to things moving through space, not to space itself, which can and does expand faster than light speed.
> We can't get particle to seriously travel faster than light and there is entire galaxy going faster??
The galaxy isn't traveling through space at faster than light speed, it's being conveyed along with the space that surrounds it at a speed that exceeds light-speed from the perspective of some distant location in space.
It seems this problem may have come full circle with the Measurement Problem. But yes, human beings themselves emit light, however that light resonates on a frequency that our eyes have not evolved to see, so we invented infrared optics.
"So even if the universe were infinitely old as well as infinitely large, it would not contain enough fuel to keep the stars shining forever and to fill up all of space with starlight."
If the universe were infinitely old, fuel was consumed, and fuel had finite density, then the sky would be completely dark. Because there would be no starts.
The author is really just thinking "It would require infinite time to receive light from infinitely far away." Which is the relevant answer to the paradox.
Take Hubble's deep field image, for instance. It was shot in a tiny area of the sky that looks completely black. But with enough exposure, Hubble found that it's actually full of galaxies. Can't I just conclude that if this part of the sky if completely black, it's not because space is expending, but just because our eyes are not sensitive enough?
Olber's Paradox points out that wherever we look at, at some distance our line of sight will meet the surface of a star. But that does not mean that this point will register as a light for our eyes. Our eyes would have to be sensitive enough.
In this hypothetical universe, the Sun would actually be a dark spot in the sky -- because it would be blocking the infinite amount of light coming from an infinite amount of stars behind it.
That's the paradox -- that we do not see that. No matter how sensitive our eyes are, we would be able to see infinite light. (Actually, our eyes would be melted... and all current forms of life impossible... but you get the picture.)
No, it never goes to zero, it just gets fainter. An infinite number of small numbers adds up to infinity.
> since the sky is indeed black, then it has to be that it's because the dimness of stars prevails over their number and/or density.
As the article mentions, the sky is black because we cannot see infinity. We can only see the observable universe.
It never goes to infinity either. Zero and infinity are the limits.
> An infinite number of small numbers adds up to infinity.
Well, no. It depends. For instance the sum of 1/n goes to infinity, but not the sum of 1/n². And since the luminosity of a star decreases with the square of the distance, I incline to believe the sum does converge.
But again, that would require some serious, albeit probably not very hard maths. I've never seen anyone discuss this. Instead everyone seems to immediately assume the sum would diverge. That's not obvious at all.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Particular_values_of_Riemann_z...
If the universe started from a single point in space and time (i.e., Big Bang), and no matter moves faster than the speed of light, how could ANY star be more distant from us than light could have traveled in the same time frame?
(I'm assuming no matter is travelling at v > c/2, otherwise my argument would only be valid for things traveling in the same hemisphere of the expansion as Earth)
Edit: To elaborate further: Since all the newly expanded space also expands, the distance to travel continuously increases as the light travels, to the point where over a certain distance the light never completes the journey.
So, the net effect is that the two objects become further apart faster than c, even though neither of them are moving.
Similarly, we can ask why the universe isn't filled with light. If the universe was infinitely old then indeed the light would eventually heat up all the matter and penetrate everywhere. But if it's expanding, then the light didn't have time to fill the space-time before it expanded further.
Kind of like how an real number divides the number line into "same size" infinite intervals.
Granted, entropy in the system would cause matter to clump into larger and larger bunches. But if the matter were perfectly arranged by an outside force (e.g. God) and didn't deteriorate, the universe could remain static.
The number of stars in each shell is quadratic relative to the radius. The brightness of each star is inversely quadratic relative to the radius of the shell. Thus, each shell has a constant total brightness, as perceived from Earth. An infinite number of these shells add up to infinite brightness.
Stars that are 20 light-years away are 4x dimmer than stars 10 light-years away. But there are 4x more stars 20 light-years away than 10 light-years away. As you go outward from Earth, the stars get dimmer and more numerous, but these balance each other, and the infinite sum is 1 + 1 + 1 + ...
(This is no chance happening; regardless of the # of spatial dimensions the universe has, this relationship holds true.)
This one's easy. The first, foundational, assumtion is way easy to knock down, via all the accumulated evidence that we erupted from a singularity 13-some billion years ago. So.. no infinite time.
But we could probably get by with, even with an infinite universe, if we just assume a universal speed, which is most definitely supported by current academic consensus. This is because of the concept of the light cone, which says that you can't be illuminated by things that lie outside your temporal and spacial vicinity, as defined by how long it takes light in a vacuum to reach you. That's a stronger statement than just how bright the sky is... it applies to any conceivable mechanism of information transfer, and it's universally supported by any experiments that we've tried (note: wormholes... possible, super crazy loop hole here... maybe an infinite universe has infinitely many wormholes to pump radiation into our light cone, so basicly multiverse, but we've already talked about the universe having an age).
I see no paradox here, but then again the Big Bang and Special Relativity are pretty new as ideas and we all benefit from the shoulders of the giants we stand on.
Edit: On further reflection, a truly infinite universe probably would park an infinite number of unstable wormholes on top of our neighborhood, but in that case the the fact that our sky is in fact dark just adds more evidence to the pile that we already have that it's not.
Not so according to “The Inverse Square Law”.[1] If one measures the light flux through a hypothetical sphere drawn around a light source and then doubles that spheres size, the light density must decline or you've broken conservation of energy. [2]
[1] http://bccp.berkeley.edu/o/Academy/workshop08/08%20PDFs/Inv_...
x * infinity = infinity (so long as x > 0; even if x is infinitesimally small)
But yes - everywhere you look in the sky (unless there is something in the way), you are looking directly at the intense fire of the birth of our universe. Red-shifted until you can't even see it any more.
I am not an astrophysicist, nor am I an expert in the early universe, but I recall that the prevailing theories of our time are that somehow the universe came in to being with predominantly hydrogen atoms. These combine through fusion in what we call stars to form denser matter. This process continues until the result of combining the elements reaches a limit. I believe that iron happens to be that limit if I recall correctly.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iron_peak
Describes what I recall reading/hearing many years ago.
[1] http://www.hup.harvard.edu/catalog.php?isbn=9780674192713
Help me here.
It's a twitter bot that takes a twitter user's birthday, and tweets to them as their "light cone" expands across the universe.
What we call bright sky is reflections of Sun rays from particles in atmosphere. What we see is reflected light.
When Sun is shadowed by Earth we see only light reflected by distant object, such as Moon.
The darkness of the night sky is relative - some rays are here, but our visual system is conditioned for days (reflected light), not nights.
The idea that everything should be filled with starts is just wrong. Rays from distant stars were deflected, blocked by particles, etc.