This comment doesn't make any sense without defining "extreme" vs "normal" income equality.
The argument is over economic inequality which I believe most take to mean wealth inequality, not income inequality.
Do you think that technology alone can't produce extreme income inequality? Why?
Of course not. You need people using the technology as well. Extreme inequality results from the simple fact (as exhaustively supported by Piketty) that r > g. Capital, by definition, is technology.