Yes but what is applicable are domestic laws that can differ from country to country. What really would not make sense would be for an international treaty to restrict what a country can do with its own software in that country.
> Why does it need to be a country? The domestic software maker whom the government forces to do something that is not allowed under the treaty should have standing.
Because the parties in this agreement are countries - and the terms in the treaty provide remedies for businesses and individuals who are infringed by another country that is a party to the treaty. You are not a party to this treaty with your own government.