>Do you agree now that if the null hypothesis is true the p-value is uniformly distributed between 0 and 1?
If the null hypothesis is true, the p-value will converge to 1. (This makes complete intuitive sense as well, if you hypothesis is true, every observation you make should/will agree with it, making the ratio of agreeable_observations:total_observations = 1.)
You haven't shown anything where a true null hypothesis uniformly generates p-values between 0 and 1. Perhaps for a single observation you can only get a 0 or 1 value, and, perhaps for a over/under the average test (where every experiment will give 0 or 1) your sequence of p-values for each observation would be uniformly distributed, but p-values are generally computed as a normalized sum over many observations, in which case the value should converge to 1 if the null hypothesis is true.
One unintuitive aspect is that you might expect p-value to converge to 0 if the null hypothesis is false, however p-value is undefined when the null hypothesis is false.