Theranos Letter Shows Elizabeth Holmes Tried to Take Control from Shareholders
forbes.com
forbes.com
These deals don't need 100% response or signature to get "unanimous consent" - only a majority. That this was highlighted is either sloppy on the part of Forbes or deliberately trying to stir the pot.
As much as we love down in flames stories (for some grotesque reason) I don't think there is much to see here.
You can't have 'passes unanimously' because that would be a third outcome that can't be obtained with only two possible responses. To add that possibility to our outcome set, we have to introduce a third response called "no."
The name of the "it passes" token may be arbitrary, but calling it "passes unanimously" is deceptive because it implies there were three ways to respond, not only two. If it is possible to pass unanimously, then to pass without qualification must mean something else.
If there is a large group of people that regularly makes use of that usage, the simplest conclusion is that they're all trying to deceive someone.
If the majority sign, then you have unanimous consent. The ones who don't sign are basically abstaining, in practice usually cause they are too busy and just never get around to it, not because they express dissent.
The language is confusing because it sounds more like a vote than it is.
Where it would matter is if there were abstentions for dissent, which I have never dealt with, so I can't say anything about it. My guess is that you wouldn't send something out in such a manner anyway if you expected resistance.
It's also not at all uncommon to be presented with a proposal where the only options are "yes" and "abstain." There is no need for a no option, because you need a majority of yes votes for the measure to pass. Abstaining is the same as voting no.
"Unanimity may be assumed explicitly after a unanimous vote or implicitly by a lack of objections."
"Practice varies as to whether a vote can be considered unanimous if some voter abstains."
Unanimous consent as stated by Theranos means (a) the majority / necessary number of shareholders gave a response and (b) none of those responses were of dissent. The quoted shareholder may still be surprised that the shareholders who did vote were a large enough group and in unanimous agreement; it's not necessarily wrong of the author to include this. Edit: The wording of the quote however does come across as though they misunderstood the consent part however.
the "shareholder" could be an employee with equity and no voting rights, in which case the article is just here to surf on the buzz surrounding theranos and adding to the bad press. Or it could be a meaningful investor, in which case he/she should be blaming noone but him/herself for not reading the fine prints/asking a lawyer
Claiming there was unanimous approval when there wasn't is a great way to get sued.
[1] http://delcode.delaware.gov/title8/c001/sc07/ [2] https://www.akingump.com/images/content/2/2/v4/22475/Duties-...
I don't have a prediction about the future of Theranos, yet when new information confirms shadiness in one context or confirms that it is in the mould of other successes in another context, then thinking that it proves the context is the definition of confirmation basis.
I feel like a broken record, but Theranos really reminds me of Terraliance Technologies. If you havent heard/read about that company, I highly recommend the following:
http://archive.fortune.com/2010/03/26/news/companies/terrall...
It is tempting to look at big VC and names like Kissinger and think "these people are too smart to get conned". Truth is so much of their success is riding on past acheivements and they make great targets because getting one of them to support something starts a feedback loop akin to highschool social dynamics.
With all of the articles coming out on them now, I wouldn't be surprised if it's revealed this is a total sham, from top to bottom.