Hacker News Reader

Sorry, I'm confused here. A p-value makes an implicit assumption that your null hypothesis is a known N(0,1). That may be throwing me off a bit. I get the point of you want to look at the likelihood function which is just one minus the CDF in the given interval. I'm just not clear on how you can get around f and g being arbitrarily parameterized functions of a given class. Are you assuming we know the class and something about f?

View on HN

A null hypothesis is just a specific thing you are trying to disprove. In this case, it's simply that the min of both distributions is identical.

I am assuming we know exactly one thing about the class the measures f and g come from: for every function in that class, \int_C^{C+d} f(x) dx >= h(d) for some monotonic function h(d).

The p-value is then computed in terms of h(d), since p >= h(d)^N.

Okay, I'll have to wait for your full write-up, because I am not seeing the path of thought here.

I'll have you know that this particular subthread was way too civil for the Internet.

Reply on news.ycombinator.com