I was prompted to actually look into this claim because the incidence of white-on-black murder is extremely low and I imagine the incidence of white-on-black murder where the victim is a woman is even lower. I would be surprised if there were even 5 such cases in the past 50 years in Alabama.
Do you have any sources? Or can you post the relevant snippet from that talk?
~84% of white victims are murdered by whites and ~90% of black victims are murdered by blacks.[1]
Crime is primarily a function of opportunity. When opportunity is taken into account, the main reason for the discrepancy is blacks are simply more likely to come into contact with whites day to day than the reverse.
So while I can't confirm the above statistic for you I can refute the assumption that there is a significant discrepancy between white-on-black crime vs. black-on-white crime.
1. http://www.politifact.com/florida/article/2015/may/21/update...
It would be a mischaracterization to imply one is extremely low, while the other is much higher. They are both, comparably, very low.
Particularly when you take variance and margin of error into account.
With such a tight range, I would wager one could only definitely claim they were probably approximately within a percent or two at best.
Crime is primarily a function of opportunity in environments prone to crime. In environments not prone to crime it is primarily a function of motivated offenders, and most opportunities are not taken advantage of.