Those are still good odds and given enough bankroll you will win. Which of the cases in the article do you think disproves that?
When you're selling deep out of the money puts you can't just assume there will be a buyer to satisfy the fractional betting condition mentioned by the author in the (theoretically correct) kelly principle.
Not doing so is suboptimal
I guess we're just talking over each other - you made an assumption that I don't believe was clear from the context.